Answer:
Sheep Brain:
Sheep brain is smaller in size the human brain. The convolutions or folds are absent in sheep brain. Olfacory bulb is more developed in shhep's brain as compared to human brain. Sheep brain is more elongated in shape.
Human brain:
Human brain is large in size. The convolutions are more numerous in human brain. Human's brain olfactory bulb is less developed as compared with sheep's brain. Human brain is round in shape.
When RBCs are placed in a hypotonic solution, they undergo
a. crenation
b. hemolysis
c. isotonicity
d. homeostasis
Answer: b. hemolysis
Explanation:
A hypotonic solution is the one where the solute concentration is less than that of the RBCs. Therefore, the solvent will enter inside the RBCs due to osmotic pressure. This will lead to the increase in concentration of the solvent inside the cells this will lead to the swallowing of the cell and with generation of the high internal pressure inside the cell the cell will burst. This will result in hemolysis.
What is this bug called?
Answer:
ASSASSIN BUG
As you lift a heavier weight, what is happening? (Select all that apply.) a. You increase the number of muscle fibers activated in each motor unit. b. You increase the number of motor units that are active in each activated muscle. c. You increase the frequency of action potentials in your motor neurons. d. You increase the diameter of muscle fibers activated in a motor unit.
What type of hormones are secreted by troph cells in the anterior pituitary gland?
a. Releasing hormones
b. Stimulating hormones
Answer:
Option (b). stimulating hormone.
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland, present at the base of the brain. The anterior lobe of pituitary consists of various endocrine cells or troph cells that synthesize and secret various hormones.
The hormones released by these cells are mainly stimulating hormones that regulate functions of some other glands. For example, TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) are secreted by anterior pituitary gland that regulate function of thyroid gland and ovaries, respectively.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
A long, thin, oblique muscle of anterior thigh
a. Sartorius
b. Masseter
Answer:
The answer is A Sartorius
Explanation:
Check out this quizlet. It helps.
https://quizlet.com/168886044/anatomy-physiology-muscles-key-term-matching-flash-cards/
What is the blind spot of the retina?
Answer:
The region of retina devoid of photoreceptor cells (rod cells and cone cells)
Explanation:
The retina is the layer of the eyeball and is packed with rod cells and cone cells responsible for night and day vision respectively. The blind spot is the region in the retina where no rod cells and cone cells are present.
Absence of these photoreceptor cells ensures that no vision is formed in this part of the retina. However, the blind spot serves as the site from where the optic nerve passes through the retina and serves to transmit the impulse to the brain.
Immoveable joints are
a. diarthrotic
b. synathrotic
c. amphiarthrotic
d. syndesmose
Answer:
D syndesmose
Explanation:
An immovable joint connects the ends of the bones by a tough fibrous tissue.
Your skin has multiple layers of epithelial cells. The apical cells (closest to the surface, "top") are "flat" and the basal cells (farther from surface bottom") are "as tall as they are wide". Another way to describe this epithelium would be to state:
a. Simple columnar epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Stratified columnar epithelium
e. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
f. Stratified squamous epithelium
g. Simple transitional epithelium
Answer:
c. Simple squamous epithelium ?
Explanation:
The apical cells are "as tall as they are wide". Another way to describe this epithelium would be to state simple squamous epithelium. Thus, option C is correct.
What is epithelium tissue?
The epithelium tissue has been defined as the form of the tissue present in the body and it plays a vital role in the covering of all internal as well as external surface of body, which includes hollow organs and lines body cavity. The structure of the epithelial cells are said to be combined together by tight junctions as well as adhering junction and attached to extra cellular matrix.
Tissue is the combined structure of cell and later tissue combined together to form organ and than organ system is formed to perform various functions of the body. The structure of epithelial cells are they combined together by tight junctions as well as adhering junction and attached to extra cellular matrix.
Therefore, The apical cells are "as tall as they are wide". Another way to describe this epithelium would be to state simple squamous epithelium. Thus, option C is correct.
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CD8 helps with recognition of which of the following molecules on the surface of a cell?
Question 12 options:
A)
TLRs
B)
selectins
C)
MHCII
D)
MHCI
E)
BCRs
Answer:
MHCI
Explanation:
Major histocompatibility complex I (MHCI) is present on the nucleated cells of the body. Endogenous pathway represents the pathway of MHC class I molecules.
MHCI display peptide fragment of proteins to the cytotoxic T cells with the help of CD8 ( Cluster of differentiation). CD8 binds with the MHCI and expressed on the surface of cytotoxic T cells.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is a scientific claim?
A.
The early solar system had large amounts of water; so, the oldest objects in the solar system should also be abundant in water.
B.
The mass of the universe is much greater than current models predict; it is not possible to explain this inconsistency.
C.
Planet Earth is abundant in water, but there is no way to scientifically determine from where Earth's water originated.
D.
Earth is shaped like a sphere even if not all of the scientific observations related to its shape support this idea.
Answer:
B maybe
Explanation:
Answer:
Option A, The early solar system had large amounts of water; so, the oldest objects in the solar system should also be abundant in water.
Explanation:
A scientific claim is a evidence based statement that is tested and tried through experiment and reasoning.
Among all the given options none of the statement except the option A has a logical reasoning support or backup.
However, in option A the statement "old object in solar system are abundant of water" is based on the reason that "early solar systems had large amount of water"
Thus, option A is correct
On which bone does Sella Turcica occurs?
Answer:
Sella Turcica occurs on the sphenoid bone.
Explanation:
Sella Turcica is the saddle shaped bone of the skull and acts as cephlaometric landmark. The inner aspect of sella turcica consists of hypophysis or pituitary gland.
Sella Turcica is present in the sphenoid bone of the skull just behind the tuberculum sellae and chiasmatic groove. The shrink pituitary gland is indicated by the empty Sella Turcica.
If a transgene is inserted into an animal embryo
only the non-reproductive cells should contain the transgene DNA.
the animal should become sterile as an adult.
every cell should contain the transgene DNA.
the transgene protein will be expressed in all cells.
only the sperm and egg cells should contain the transgene DNA.
Answer:
Every cell should contain the transgene DNA.
Explanation:
The embryo is the very early stages of growth and development of an organism. An embryo develops from a zygote and contains about 16 cells. Inserting transgenes in these cells, therefore, will ensure that all the cells that divide from the embryo by mitosis have the transgene. The whole organism will, therefore, bear the transgene including its gametes. This foreign gene will, therefore, be inherited by the offspring of the organism.
With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the __________, which acts as a relay and processing station.
a. cerebrum
b. thalamus
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus
e. medulla oblongata
Answer:
The correct answer is option B-thalamus.
Explanation:
Thalamus is a small olive shaped structure located in the brain beneath the cerebrum.
Thalamus serves as a relay station of the brain which has an important role in directing the sensory input signals to the appropriate location in the cerebral cortex of the impulses travelling from the body, ears, eyes and other senses (except for smell).
This happens as the thalamus is subdivided into a number of nuclei which deals with analyzing particular information and then sending the information from that nucleus to cerebral cortex.
Thus, option B-thalamus is the correct answer.
All sensory pathways, except for olfaction, first travel to the thalamus in the brain.
Explanation:With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the thalamus, which acts as a relay and processing station. The thalamus is a part of the brain and is responsible for relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. It receives information from various sensory organs and sends it to the appropriate areas of the cerebrum for further processing and interpretation.
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The specific color of blood is most closely associated to
A) Its pH
B) Its oxygen content
C) Its hematocrit
D) The age of the individual
Answer:
B. It's oxygen content
Explanation:
The specific color of blood is most closely associated to its oxygen content because the more oxygen present in your blood, the more dark red your blood would be...
If you have less oxygen in your blood, the blood wouldn't be as dark red...
What happens if calorie intake exceeds TDEE for a significant period of time?
Answer:
The individual gains weight if if calorie intake exceeds TDEE for a significant period of time.
Explanation:
TDEE ( Total daily energy expenditure) is the number of calories burnt in the day. TDEE involves the energy from the basal metabolism and physical activity.
The value of TDEE exceeds the value of basal metabolic rate. If calories intake in an individual exceeds the TDEE, an individual body's gain weight for the significant period of time.
Why are infections more common with compound fractures than with simple fractures?
Answer: Compound fractures = open fractures
Explanation: This means that the area is more suseptable to infection. Because it is open, there is more room for an infection to burrow in and spread.
What is the densest layer
Answer:
Explanation:
The densest layer is the solid metal inner core, the mantle is of intermediate density, and the least dense layer is the lithosphere, particularly the continental lithosphere.
Brainiest please thx.
As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the
A. peroneal vein.
B. saphenous vein.
C. common iliac vein
D. femoral vein.
E. deep femoral vein.
Answer:
D. Femoreal vein.
Explanation:
Close to the popliteal artery, the popliteal vein extends and transports blood from the knee (and also the muscles from the thigh and calf) once again up to the heart. This vein has its origin in the joint between both the anterior and posterior tibial veins, proximal to the knee.
Also, the popliteal vein starts its extension from the popliteal artery, which can be found behind the knee, and the drainage of the peroneal vein is performed by it prior to reaching the knee joint, where the popliteal vein becomes known as the femoral vein.
As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the D. femoral vein. This is the correct option among the choices provided.
The popliteal vein is a deep vein that drains the lower leg and knee area. When it travels upwards in the leg, the popliteal vein becomes the femoral vein as it enters the thigh region. The femoral vein plays a crucial role in the circulatory system as it drains the upper leg and receives blood from several other veins, including the great saphenous vein, the deep femoral vein, and the femoral circumflex vein. Upon reaching the inguinal ligament, the femoral vein continues as the external iliac vein, which then contributes to the common iliac vein. Confusion may arise among the terminology, such as with the peroneal vein and others, but knowledge of vascular anatomy makes clear that the direct upward continuation of the popliteal vein is indeed the femoral vein.
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is?
A) secretion of acids and ammonia
B) filtration
C) adjusting urine volume
D) secretion of drugs
E) re-absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water
A) secretion of acids and ammonia
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is re-absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water. Therefore, option (E) is correct.
The PCT is essential to the nephron, which filters and processes blood to generate urine. The PCT re-absorbs chemicals from the filtrate into the bloodstream after the glomerulus.
The glomerulus filters ions, organic compounds, vitamins, and water into the tubule. The PCT actively re-absorbs a large part of these chemicals, returning them to the bloodstream for body retention. Re-absorption prevents urine loss of important chemicals. Therefore, option (E) is correct.
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On which bone does Jugular Foramen occurs?
Answer:
The petrous temporal bone
Explanation:
Jugular Foramen is a cavity or aperture which is formed at the junction of two bones of the skull. Jugular Foramen occurs at the junction of the occipital bone and petrous temporal bone. The petrous temporal bone has carotid foramen. The Jugular Foramen is located posterior to the carotid foramen but anterior to the occipital bone of the skull.
You are studying several alleles of an E. coli helicase gene. One allele, called rsR, confers resistance to RS2014, an antibiotic that works by inhibiting helicase activity. Bacteria with the rsS allele are sensitive to RS2014. Another allele, called ts-, produces a temperature sensitive mutation of the helicase. In bacteria with the ts- allele, helicase is inactivated at 42 °C but functions normally at 37 °C. Helicase functions normally at both temperatures in bacteria with the ts allele. You obtain the following data while testing four strains of E. coli at different temperatures and doses of RS2014. Each number represents the percentage of maximal DNA synthesis. Based on this data, assign the appropriate genotype to strains A–D in the spaces provided
Answer:
refre
Explanation:
Based on the data provided, the appropriate genotypes for strains A-D are assigned.
Explanation:Based on the given information, we can assign the appropriate genotype to strains A-D as follows:
Strain A is rsR ts-Strain B is rsS ts-Strain C is rsR tsStrain D is rsS tsThese assignments are made by analyzing the behavior of each strain in response to different temperatures and doses of the RS2014 antibiotic. The rsR allele confers resistance to RS2014, while the rsS allele makes the bacteria sensitive to RS2014. The ts- allele causes the helicase to be inactivated at 42 °C, but function normally at 37 °C.
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Name, in order, the five main components of a reflex arc. Briefly explain what each component is or does.
Answer:
The five parts of reflex arc are sense organs (receptor) followed by sensory neuron, then the inter neuron, motor neuron and lastly by the muscles/body organs.
Explanation:
The five parts of reflex arc are -
a) The first part is the receptor which comprises of sense organ whose function is to sense the impulse and pass the perceived information to the sensory neuron.
b) The sensory neuron then carry the information from sense organs to the central nervous system (CNS) for processing.
c) The inter neurons carry the information from CNS to the motor neuron
d) After receiving processed information/ action potential from inter neuron it is sent to the other parts of the body and away from the CNS .
e) Lastly, the muscles/body organs which receive information from the motor neuron, enact as directed by the CNS as a response to the impulse received.
Cells which are joined tightly together are characteristics of?
Answer:
Epithelial tissue
Explanation:
Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport, and sensing. Epithelial layers contain no blood vessels, so they must receive nourishment via and diffusion of substances from the underlying connective tissue, through the basement membrane.
Epithelial tissue
What is epithelial tissue?
The cells in epithelial tissue are very intently packed collectively and joined with a little area between them. With its tightly packed structure, we'd assume epithelial tissue to serve some kind of barrier and shielding function and this is certainly the case.
No matter there being many exclusive forms of epithelial tissue all epithelial tissue has just 5 characteristics, these are
cellularitypolarityattachmentvascularityregenerationLearn more about Epithelial tissue here
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Why is the action of phagocytes considered a nonspecific response?
Answer:
Since phagocytes are effective against any type of infectious/toxic agent.
Explanation:
Phagocytes are the cells of the immune system that are involved in the non-specific immune response. These cells serve to engulf and kill any pathogenic or infectious microbe that has entered the body. Since phagocytes do not require the presence of specific antigens or pathogens to mount the immune response, their action is "non-specific response".
Answer:
D. It is not a response to a specific type of pathogen.
Explanation:
this is the answer to this question on edge2021 :)
List the types of proteins found in the cell membrane.
The diploid cells in the testes that undergo meiosis I to produce haploid cells are the ___________.
a. secondary spermatocytes
b. primary spermatocytes
c. interstitial cells
d. spermatogonia
e. Sertoli cells
Answer:
b. Primary spermatocytes
Explanation:
Primary spermatocytes are the diploid cells present in seminiferous tubules of testes. These diploid cells enter meiosis I and produce haploid cells. Each diploid primary spermatocyte produces two haploid cells by meiosis I which are called secondary spermatocytes.
The secondary spermatocytes then enter meiosis II to produce sperms.
Final answer:
In spermatogenesis, diploid primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to produce haploid secondary spermatocytes, which then become spermatids after meiosis II.
Explanation:
The diploid cells in the testes that undergo meiosis I to produce haploid cells are the primary spermatocytes. Spermatogenesis begins with spermatogonia, which are diploid cells that divide by mitosis to create more spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes. The primary spermatocytes are the ones that undergo meiosis I to form haploid secondary spermatocytes.
Spermatogonia are also diploid cells that start the process of spermatogenesis, ultimately leading to the production of sperm. The process of spermatogenesis involves several stages where diploid cells transition into haploid cells, culminating in the production of sperm. These haploid cells then quickly proceed through meiosis II to become spermatids, which are also haploid.
The frequency of a deleterious recessive disease in a large, randomly-mating population is 1 in 1000. Calculate the probability of an individual being a carrier for this recessive disease?
a) 0.74
b) 0.06
c) 0.03
d) 0.001
e) All individuals will be homozygous
Answer:
The frequency of carriers for the recessive disease is 0.062.
Explanation:
The frequency of recessive allele in the generation is 1 in 1000.
Let the frequency be q²=1/1000.
q=√1/1000.
q=0.032.
Let p be the frequency of dominant allele
p+q=1 ( According to hardy weinberg equillibrium)
p=1-q
p= 1-0.032
p=0.968.
The frequency of carriers for the recessive disease = 2×p×q
=2×0.032×0.968
=0.062.
What valve prevents back flow into the left ventricle of the heart?
A) pulmonary valve
B) mitral valve
C) tricuspid valve
D) aortic valve
Answer:
Option D, aortic valve
Explanation:
The location of aortic valve i.e between the aorta and left ventricle, allows it to stop the blood from flowing back into the left ventricle.
The other options are incorrect as -
Pulmonary valve being located between the pulmonary artery and right ventricle, stop the blood from flowing back into the right ventricle.
The tricuspid valve and mitral valve stops the blood from flowing back into the right atria and left atria respectively.
Hence, option D is correct.
Which of the following would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist?
a. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
b. Extensor Digitorium
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
d. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris
Final answer:
The muscle that would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist is the b) extensor digitorum, as it is responsible for extending the fingers and hand, which is the opposite motion of making a fist.
Explanation:
When making a fist, muscles called synergists work together to perform the action required. The extensor digitorum is involved in extending the fingers and the hand at the wrist, not in flexing them to make a fist. The muscles that would be involved in making a fist are the flexors. Therefore, the muscle that would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist is: b. Extensor Digitorium
The other muscles listed are extensors of the wrist and would not actively contribute to the flexion required for making a fist. To clarify, the extensor muscles listed (including the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor carpi ulnaris) primarily act to extend the wrist and fingers, which is the opposite motion required for making a fist.
Which muscle is responsible for inhalation ?
Answer:
The muscles of respiration are those muscles that contribute to inhalation and exhalation, by aiding in the expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity. The diaphragm and, to a lesser extent, the intercostal muscles drive respiration during quiet breathing.
the answer is diaphragm