Answer:
A. treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries
Explanation:
The vaginal is surrounded by soft tissues. Laceration on the vaginal as a result of the assault suffered by the woman would would result in tears in the vaginal, or in the skin and muscle that surrounds the vaginal.
To prevent further complications, the EMT should treat the vaginal lacerations like every other soft tissue injury. Treatment might include proper positioning, applying cold press, applying direct pressure etc.
The EMT should treat deep genital lacerations from an assault like other soft tissue injuries, focusing on controlling bleeding and providing sterility. Option A is correct .
When a woman has sustained deep lacerations to her genitals due to an assault, the EMT should follow a systematic approach to ensure she receives appropriate care.
The most suitable response is to treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries (Option A). This includes controlling any bleeding by applying direct pressure, using sterile dressings to cover the wounds, and ensuring the patient remains as comfortable as possible during transport. Elevating the hips or applying the PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment) is not recommended as it may complicate the injury.Administering oxygen is essential if there are signs of shock or respiratory distress but is not the immediate focus for managing lacerations.
A mother brings her baby to the health department. The baby has vesicles that rupture and develop yellow crust. These symptoms MOST LIKELY indicate __ .a) eczemab) psoriasisc) wartsd) impetigo
Answer:
Impetigo
Explanation:
Impetigo - it is a type of skin disease caused by bacteria known as staphylococcus aureus. These bacteria infect the outer part of the skin called the epidermis. This mostly affects children of age 2 to 5.
The symptoms of impetigo include red sores then continuous ooze and then finally to yellow crust on the outer layer. Red sores are first developed on the nose and then spread slowly to the other part of the body.
Discuss the importance of education in professional nursing practice.
Answer:
Education helps nurses help people; providing nurses the skills and tools they need to positively impact individual’s lives.
Explanation:
Improved knowledge is an essential tool for prevention of errors and providing higher quality care.
For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function? A. Lipid. B. Carbohydrate. C. Vitamin. D. Protein.
Answer:
D. Protein
Explanation:
Protein is an important component of every cell in the body. ... Your body uses protein to build and repair tissues. You also use protein to make enzymes, hormones, and other body chemicals. Protein is an important building block of bones, muscles, cartilage, skin, and blood.
What is the most important teaching from the plan of care, to emphasize, when a client is prescribed a skeletal muscle relaxant?
Answer: the client is instructed not to drive or operate machinery as this could result in potentially fatal accidents.
Explanation: muscles need to properly contract & relax during such activities and since the drug would cause extensive relaxation, the client should not therefore work while on the medication.
The _________ was created in order to alert insurer home office underwriters of errors, omissions, or misrepresentations made on insurance applications.
a. Attending Physician's Statementb. MIBc. The agent's reportd. Consumer Investigative Report
Answer:
MIB
Explanation:
The MIB is supported by insurance companies and it collects medical information about an applicant's health as reported by insurance companies after underwriting.
ultrasound sonography uses high frequency waves directed towards the pregnant woman abdomaen that produce a visual rep of the fetus
Answer:
Ultrasound
Explanation:
This question is incomplete. The question is supposed to read:
Ultrasound sonography uses high frequency *blank* waves directed towards... Fill in the blank.
The answer is: ultrasound
Ultrasound waves are waves of sound that are unable to be detected by human ears. They are often produced by machines to be directed at the abdomen of a pregnant woman. The sound is then received by the machine and interpreted to create an image of the fetus. This is commonly used by doctors to make sure there are no anomalies present in the baby.
A man who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has been diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. He has been prescribed theophylline by his family provider. What effect will the client's smoking status have on the therapeutic use of theophylline?
Answer:
Theophylline concentration may be decreased by smoking .
Explanation:
Theophylline is a methylxanthine derivative of tea with diuretic, smooth muscle relaxant, bronchial dilation, cardiac and central nervous system stimulating activities. It is an anti-asthmatic drug. This medicine is indicated for individuals suffering from asthma attacks and other respiratory diseases. The action of theophylline consists in relaxing the muscles of the bronchi and pulmonary blood vessels, thus facilitating the entry of air into the lungs. Theophylline acts as a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, adenosine receptor blocker and activator histone deacetylase.
Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi, channels that carry inhaled air to the pulmonary alveoli. It sets in when the tiny lashes lining the inside of the bronchi stop eliminating mucus in the airways. This accumulation of secretion causes them to become permanently inflamed and contracted, mainly causing cough.
Chronic bronchitis increases the risk of other respiratory infections, particularly pneumonia. The disease may set in as an extension of acute bronchitis, but the main cause of the disease is cigarette smoke.
The most important measure in treating chronic bronchitis is to quit smoking. Smokers need a relatively higher dose of theophylline (active substance) than nonsmoking adults due to increased clearance. In other words, the theophylline concentration may be decreased by smoking .
Milrinone (Primacor) is a miscellaneous inotropic drug used in the short-term management of heart failure. What is the only way this drug is approved to be administered?
Answer:
Intravenously
Explanation:
Intravenously means situated within, performed within, occurring within, or administered by entering a vein an intravenous feeding intravenous inflammation.
The term _____refers to not overindulging in any one type of food or in potentially harmful foods, such as those that contain excess amounts of sugar, salt and unhealthy fats.
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
Answer: Phase 5
Explanation:
Core power training phase 5 is the level is the level of core power exercise that is needed to prepare an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functional and applicable speed. They are designed to improve the rate of force production of the musculature .
Several types exist and they include soccer throw, pullover throw amongst others and are generally called core power training.
I hope this helps
A certain type of recurring, often one-sided headache, which is often accompanied by nausea and/or vomiting and extreme sensitivity to light, is called _________
Answer:
Migraine
Explanation:
Migraine is a disabling, biologically based headache that affects genetically predisposed people. This type of primary headache can occur at any age, but it usually manifests more in adolescents, young adults, and affects women more than men.
In about 15% of cases, pain is preceded (or accompanied by) a premonitory aura involving visual symptoms. Its main feature is blurred vision or the presence of bright, zigzag or dark spots in the periods preceding the painful crises.
Typical symptoms are:
Throbbing and pulsating pain, usually unilateral, of moderate or severe intensity; Nausea; Vomiting; Hypersensitivity to light (photophobia), sounds (phonophobia) and certain odors (osmophobia), which last for four to 72 hours and worsen with movement; Irritability; Depression; AgitationTo treat a severe or minor wound, apply direct pressure with a bandage or a clean towel.
A. True
B. False
Answer:True
Explanation:
While this is wholly true for severe wound, it could be done for minor wounds too especially when they continue to bleed (minor wounds are expected to stop bleeding on their own within a few minutes). After the stoppage of the bleeding, the pressure can be sustained by binding the wound with a bandage. The wound can also be cleaned and rinsed with clean water or normal saline
It’s good to note that the bandage that should be used must be sterile to prevent wound infection and the part of the body involved could also be elevated afterwards especially if it’s a limb.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Severe wound is when there is significant bleeding and broken bone can also be involved.
A surgical client will be administered sedative followed by a neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker. What nursing action best preserves the client’s safety?
Answer:
Ensure that emergency equipment is readily available.
Explanation:
This will enable surgical operation to go on very quickly unhindered.
The most critical nursing action is to ensure thorough communication and confirmation among the healthcare team via 'Sign in' and 'Time out' steps. These steps are crucial for patient safety during sedation and NMJ blocker administration. Follow-up support for high-risk patients further enhances safety.
Nursing Action to Preserve Client's Safety During Sedation and NMJ Blocker Administration
When administering a sedative followed by a neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker to a surgical client, the most critical nursing action to preserve the client's safety is to ensure thorough communication and confirmation among the healthcare team. This includes a 'Sign in' step before induction of anesthesia, where members of the team (at least the nurse and an anesthesia professional) orally confirm key concerns for the patient's recovery and care. Additionally, there should be a 'Time out' before the skin incision, where the entire team, including nurses, surgeons, and anesthesia professionals, orally reviews the key concerns for the patient's care.
Enhanced support for clients at high risk of medication-related harm can include post-discharge follow-up by a nurse to monitor their progress and address any complications. This multi-faceted approach ensures the patient's safety and addresses any potential issues promptly.
Finally, using these standardized procedures helps to block pain and other sensations effectively and allows patients to undergo medical procedures safely by inducing unconsciousness when necessary.
Infants who receive adequate nutrition but look as though they are suffering from marasmus, acting listless and apathetic, are suffering from __________.a. nonorganic failure to thriveb. marasmusc. undernutritiond. Kwashiorkor
Answer:
A. Non organic failure to thrive.
Explanation:
Nonorganic failure to thrive (NOFTT), i.e., FTT not due to organic disease, is the most common category of FTT in the United States and is associated with delayed growth and development and abnormal behaviors. Factors extrinsic to the infant are primarily responsible for NOFTT.
When the number of calories a person consumes is equal to the number of calories he or she burns in a day, that person's body is in?
Answer:
energy balance.
Explanation:
The concept of energy balance is based on the fundamental thermodynamic principle that energy cannot be destroyed, and can only be gained, lost, or stored by an organism. Energy balance is defined as the state achieved when the energy intake equals energy expenditure.
*Source for explanation: touch endocrinology*
How do the kidneys compensate for acid-base imbalances?
by excreting bicarbonate ion by excreting H+
by reabsorbing bicarbonate ion
by reabsorbing H+ all of the above
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
The kidneys are slower to compensate, but renal physiology has several powerful mechanisms to control pH by the excretion of excess acid or base. In response to acidosis, the tubular cells reabsorb more bicarbonate from the tubular fluid, and the collecting duct cells secrete more hydrogen and generate more bicarbonate, and ammoniagenesis leads to an increase of the NH3 buffer. In its responses to alkalosis, the kidneys may excrete more bicarbonate by decreasing hydrogen ion secretion from the tubular epithelial cells, and lower the rates of glutamine metabolism and ammonium excretion.
The kidneys have two very important roles in maintaining the acid–base balance:
They reabsorb bicarbonate from urine.
They excrete hydrogen ions into urine.
Carol has terminal cancer. She has read that eating certain foods has been found to prolong a person's life. Therefore she spends a great deal of time preparing meals for herself. She was given six months to live but has now exceeded that time. She owes it to her diet and perseverance. What can we expect of Carol's demeanor?
Answer:
She will most likely be more alert and cheerful.
Explanation:
Of course, the fact that Carol has exceeded her life expectancy should make her happy, but no cure for cancer is miraculous, so she should be alert. But above all, positivism is a good way to deal with this disease, since being optimistic the patient improves his temperance to face the disease.
Carol's demeanor might be optimistic as she finds meaning and a sense of control through her precise dietary choices, similar to how Randy Pausch lived his final days with purpose and joy. Diet can influence health outcomes, which may explain her extended lifespan beyond the prognosis, but her emotional resilience and support system are also impactful.
Explanation:Given Carol's situation where she has terminal cancer and has surpassed the life expectancy given to her, it is likely that her demeanor would be influenced by her proactive approach to health through diet and her perseverance. These actions may have provided her with a sense of control and hope, possibly contributing to an optimistic outlook despite her circumstances. This is akin to the case of Randy Pausch, who chose to live his final days with joy and purpose. Carol may be experiencing a similar phenomenon, finding solace and meaning in her actions and possibly reaching a state of acceptance of her condition while still striving to live fully. The impact of diet is indeed significant; studies have indicated that certain dietary changes can influence health outcomes, including reducing tumor growth and extending lifespan in animals. This could partially explain Carol's exceeded life expectancy beyond the initial prognosis. However, Carol's outlook on life, her mental and emotional resilience, and the social support she receives are also crucial components that can affect her demeanor and overall wellbeing.
Which of the following does NOT result in metabolic alkalosis? a. constipation b. decrease in food c. intake lowered body temperature d. hyperventilation
Answer:
D. Hyperventilation
Explanation:
Hyperventilation is a condition in which you start to breathe very fast. Healthy breathing occurs with a healthy balance between breathing in oxygen and breathing out carbon dioxide. You upset this balance when you hyperventilate by exhaling more than you inhale.
100 points!!!!! Being safe during exercise is very important. Knowing the rules of a game, using the right equipment, and even wearing proper footwear are important to prevent injuries.
What are some best practices for different exercises and sports performed:
at high altitude?
in hot weather?
in cold weather?
As you write your answers, consider the following items:
wearing proper attire
staying hydrated
any other important items, like proper posture, precautions, etc.
2. Do these best practices change depending on the person or skill level? Explain.
Many safety measures must be ensured while exercising or sporting at different places according to the variation of each places the safety measures vary
At high altitude: At high altitude there will be decrease in the level of oxygen so one must carry oxygen cylinders with them and proper attire must be worn because the dresses can cling to some places and cause accidents and must avoid alcohols and heavy meals
In hot weather: One must drink a lot of water and must remember that they must stay hydrated and wearing proper clothing is also important to run the extreme heat
In cold weather: Should check the weather conditions if the weather is extremely chill and must protect the hands and leg from chillness must take into conditions the postures also
Yes, they change depending upon the persons skill and ability level and the interest they take upon
Final answer:
The best practices for exercises at high altitude, hot weather, and cold weather with considerations for individual variations.
Explanation:
Best practices for different exercises performed at high altitude:
Gradually acclimate to the altitude to allow your body to adjust.
Stay hydrated by drinking plenty of water and avoiding alcohol and caffeine.
Wear appropriate clothing to protect against cold weather and UV radiation.
Best practices for different exercises performed in hot weather:
Stay hydrated by drinking plenty of water before, during, and after exercise.
Wear lightweight, breathable clothing to allow for sweat evaporation.
Take frequent breaks, seek shade, and avoid exercising during the hottest hours of the day.
Best practices for different exercises performed in cold weather:
Layer clothing to trap warm air and protect against wind and moisture.
Wear moisture-wicking fabrics and avoid wearing cotton, as it can retain moisture and cause chilling.
Warm up properly before exercising and cool down afterwards to prevent muscle injuries.
Do these best practices change depending on the person or skill level?
Yes, these best practices can vary depending on the individual's physical condition, medical history, and acclimatization to different environments. It's always important for individuals to listen to their bodies, consult with healthcare professionals, and modify their exercise routines accordingly.
A client who was recently diagnosed with cancer is now receiving morphine for pain. Since this client has been receiving morphine for only a short time, he is best described by which term?
Answer:
Opiate naive
Explanation:
Opioid naive: Patients who are not chronically receiving opioid analgesics on a daily basis; and. Opioid tolerant: patients who are chronically receiving opioid analgesics on a daily basis.
A __________ is a one group of repetitions. a. Cardiovascular endurance b.Muscular endurance c.Reps Sets
Answer:
C. Reps, Sets
Explanation:
In exercise, a rep or set is when you perform a certain move over and over again for a certain amount of times.
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The _____ returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus.
A. renal pelvis
B. renal vein
C. renal tubule
D. renal artery
Final answer:
The renal vein (option B) returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after it has passed through the glomerulus. This is part of the kidney's function to filter blood, where the renal artery brings in the blood, the nephrons filter it, and then the renal vein carries the purified blood back into circulation.
Explanation:
The structure that returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus is the renal vein. Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery and moves into the glomerulus where filtration occurs. The filtered substances then pass to the renal tubule for reabsorption and secretion processes. Finally, the cleaned and processed blood is returned to the circulation via the renal vein, completing the filtration cycle.
The loop of Henle is part of the:
B. renal tubule
Symptoms of burning itching and pain occur when ddt is absorbed through the skin because?
Answer:
Sensory neurons depolarize.
Explanation:
DDT is known as Dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane, it is a tasteless, colorless, and odourless organochlorine chemical compound. It is basically developed as an insecticides now it is widely used, and famous for environmental impacts.
Symptoms of burning, itching, and pain occur when DDT is absorbed through the skin because the action potentials which are involved in these sensations like inching, and pain results from depolarization.
When baroreceptors sense a drop in blood pressure, the vasomotor center responds by __________.
Answer:
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart and vascular system.
Explanation:
Baroreceptors are the type of the mechanoreceptors that are mainly located in the aortic arch and the carotid sinus. They are mainly activated by the change in the blood pressure.
The centers of the brainstem integrate the feedback mechanism in the form of the baroreceptors. This regulate the cardiac functioning of the body and the maintenance of the blood pressure. The vasomotor control center responds to the sympathetic stimulation of the vascular system and the heart.
Thus, the answer is sympathetic stimulation of the heart and vascular system.
Answer:
the vasomotor center responds by triggering peripheral vasoconstriction.
Explanation:
Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs to allow the body to retain core heat for longer as protection against hypothermia by allowing the skin to act as an insulating layer between core organs and the water.
Water carries heat away from the body core to cool the body when needed through the process known as evaporation.
-Answer: "Water carries heat away from the body core to cool the body when needed through the process known as EVAPORATION" is a TRUE statement. :)
In order for individuals to stay cool and at a moderate body temperature, water must carry heat away from the body core through evaporation to make conditions suitable for individuals.
The most dangerous route of drug administration is ________________ injection.
Answer:
Intravenous injection (IV)
Explanation:
Injectable medication administration should be performed efficiently, safely and responsibly, in order to achieve the goals of the implemented therapy. Most drugs can be administered by a variety of routes. The choice of the appropriate route in a given situation depends on both the drug and patient-related factors.
Intravenous (IV): should be administered slowly for several hours into one of the superficial veins and with monitoring of the patient's reactions. The drug reaches the bloodstream directly and the effects are produced immediately. Once a drug is injected, there is no way to withdraw it. It is the most dangerous route and vital organs such as the heart, brain, etc., are exposed to high concentrations of the drug.
Together with the skin and the liver, the kidney synthesize _____, the active form of vitamin D.A)calcitoninB)calcitriolC)erythropoietinD)reninE)angiotensin
Answer:
B)calcitriol
Explanation:
The active form of vitamin D is calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D) which is synthesized by the kidney.
Other organs which play a role in the synthesis of Vitamin D are skin and liver.
In the presence of sunlight, a compound 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted into Vitamin D. Vitamin D is converted into 25-hydroxy-vitamin D (calcidiol) in the liver which is further converted into 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidney which is the active form of vitamin D.
Referring to other options,
A)calcitonin
It a hormone released by thyroid gland and is responsible for calcium and phosphate levels regulation. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
B)calcitriol
This is the correct answer choice.
C)erythropoietin
This is a hormone released by kidney and is responsible for increasing red blood cell production. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
D)renin
This is a hormone released by the kidney and is responsible for blood pressure regulation. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
E)angiotensin
This is a peptide hormone responsible for blood pressure regulation.
Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
Olivia, a 9-year-old girl, has no record of ever receiving an influenza vaccination. She has a fear of needles. The only medication she receives on a regular basis is albuterol. Which of the following would be an appropriate recommendation for an influenza vaccination for Olivia?A) Do not administer any influenza vaccine.
B) Recommend one dose of IIV.
C) Recommend one dose of LAIV
D) Recommend two doses of IIV separated by 4 weeks.
Olivia should receive one dose of LAIV, a nasal spray influenza vaccine, which is suitable for children who fear needles, but should consult her healthcare provider first because of her albuterol use.
The appropriate recommendation for an influenza vaccination for Olivia, a 9-year-old girl with a history of albuterol use and no record of influenza vaccination, would be C) Recommend one dose of LAIV (Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine). LAIV is administered as a nasal spray and can be preferable for individuals who have a fear of needles. It is important to note that the LAIV mimics the normal route of infection without causing the disease and is currently administered in the United States. Given that Olivia is within the recommended age range for LAIV, she can benefit from this type of vaccine. Moreover, Olivia may have asthma given her use of albuterol, in which case LAIV is generally not recommended due to safety concerns, so it would be necessary to consult her healthcare provider before vaccination.
One key role of copper is that it works with _____ to protect you from __________.
Answer:
enzymes, virus and bacterias
Explanation:
Copper is a potent bactericidal agent, being a great ally to fight diseases.
Copper is an ally in the fight against infections, due to its efficiency as a bactericidal agent. That is why copper surfaces and their alloys are ideal for preventing disease transmission.
In the U.S., livestock consume a significant proportion of the food crops grown.
A. true
B. False
Answer:True.
Explanation:
86%of the foodcrop is consumed by livesstock Thi is true because man consumed more of processed foods compare to foodcrops in the US.
Therefore if these live stock do not consume these excess; crop resideus and associated byproducts will.be ubiquitous constitutiting environmental burden.With coresponding increase in human population.