Answer:
The right hemisphere controls the left side of the body and our creativity.
Explanation:
The right hemisphere coordinates the left side of the body, and performs tasks that have do with creativity and the arts.
The left side of the brain is responsible for controlling the right side of the body and controls the way we think logically.
The right hemisphere of the brain primarily controls the left side of the body and is often associated with spatial and nonverbal reasoning. It's important to note, however, that the brain functions as a whole unit and most functions are distributed globally around the cerebrum.
Explanation:The right hemisphere of the brain primarily controls the left side of the body. It plays a significant role in spatial and nonverbal reasoning, arousal, negative emotions, and pitch perception. Language processing, a task typically associated with the left hemisphere, can cross over to the right hemisphere via the corpus callosum, which bridges the two hemispheres together.
While the left hemisphere tends to be dominant in language functions in about 95% of the population, it must be noted that the brain functions as a whole and most of its functions are globally distributed. Misconceptions of people being 'right-brained' or 'left-brained' oversimplify the complex nature of the cerebral hemispheres.
In certain cases of intractable epilepsy, the corpus callosum is surgically severed as a treatment option, resulting in 'split-brain' patients. These patients highlight the roles of the individual hemispheres as we observe their behaviors and abilities post-surgery.
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Which of these statements describing cranial nerves with parasympathetic outflow is accurate? Which of these statements describing cranial nerves with parasympathetic outflow is accurate? Postganglionic axons of cranial nerves III, VII, and IX travel with axons of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) to their final destinations. Cranial nerve IX, which synapses in the otic ganglion, promotes secretions of the sublingual and submandibular glands. Cranial nerve VII, which synapses in the pterygopalatine ganglion, regulates nasal secretions and tear production. Cranial nerve III promotes pupil dilation and secretions of the submandibular gland.
the correct answer is accurate:
Postganglionic axons of cranial nerves III, VII, and IX travel with axons of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) to their final destinations.
The parasympathetic division (craniosacral outflow) consists of cell bodies from one of two locations: the brainstem (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X) or the sacral spinal cord (S2, S3, S4).
Answer:cranial nerve VII, which synapses in the pterygopalatine ganglion, regulates nasal secretions and tear production
Explanation:
In a resting neuron, the inside of the cell is __________.
positive relative to the outside of the cell because the myelin sheath around the axon carries a negative charge
negative relative to the outside of the cell because of differences in ionic composition of the fluids inside and outside of the cell
positive relative to the outside of the cell because only positively charged ions are allowed into the cell
negative relative to the outside of the cell because the myelin sheath around the axon carries a positive charge
More negatively charge than the outside.
how does the lymphatic system work
Hello =)
The primary function of the lymphatic system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells, throughout the body.
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the circulation system works with the digestive as well as the what system?
Skeletal
Excretory
Answer:
excretory
Explanation:
The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons.
True
False
The answer is false.
The pharyngeal phase is the involuntary closure of the larynx by the epiglottis and vocal cords, and the temporary inhibition of breathing.
The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is controlled by the medulla oblongata and the lower pons of the brainstem, not the thalamus, hence the statement is false.
Explanation:The statement is false. The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing, also known as the voluntary phase, is actually controlled by the swallowing center in the medulla oblongata and the lower pons of the brainstem, not the thalamus. During this phase, the bolus of food moves from the pharynx to the esophagus due to a series of involuntary contractions known as peristalsis.
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The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves
The mesenteries are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves
Thanks to the mesentery the intestines are attached to the posterior abdominal wall. Mesentery is formed by the double fold of peritoneum (double layers of peritoneum) and its roles are to help in storing fat and to allow blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves to supply the intestines.
The Mesenteries are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend visceral organs and carry nerves.
Here is a step-by-step explanation to make it more understandable:
The peritoneum is a large serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers most of the digestive organs.The peritoneum can be divided into two main layers: the parietal peritoneum which lines the abdominal wall, and the visceral peritoneum which covers the organs.Mesenteries are formed by the double folding of the peritoneum. These structures are crucial because they help to suspend and hold the organs in place within the abdominal cavity.Important functions of mesenteries include carrying the blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves that supply the organs they are connected to.Refraction occurs when light's ___________________ changes. A speed B direction C amplitude D color
Refraction occurs when light's direction changes.
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Protein synthesis is a complicated process involving dna being transcribed to rna. True or False
➷ This is a true statement. The DNA is then translated into amino acids.
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Where would you expect to find the receptor for a nonpolar ligand?
A. One the cell surface
B. Either in the nucleus of the cell or in the cytosol
C. In the cytosol
D. In the nucleus of the cell
Either in the nucleus of the cell or in the cytosol.
Which ocean zone receives the most amount of sunlight?
Bathypelagic zone
abyssopelagic zone
epipelagic zone
mesopelagic zone
The zones given to us are all of the ocean zones, which can be ordered the following way:
Epipelagic zone = sunlight zoneMesopelagic zone = twilight zoneBathypelagic zone = midnight zoneAbyssopelagic zone - abyss / abyss zoneSo, as we can see, the epipelagic zone is the one that is closest to the surface. The epipelagic zone ranges from 0m to 200m below surface. This also depends on the water clarity (which influences visibility).
Answer:
C./3 - Epipelagic zone.
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BiologiaMagister
To what extent has the presence of a true coelom in animals changed over the course of evolution?
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears not to have changed during the course of evolution.
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed exactly once during the course of evolution.
It is impossible to tell whether the presence or absence of a true coelom has changed during the course of evolution.
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed multiple times during the course of evolution.
Option D is the correct answer.
To what extent has the presence of a true coelom in animals changed over the course of evolution?
A coelom is a body cavity that is formed from the mesoderm tissue.
Option D - The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed multiple times during the course of evolution.
Answer:
The presence or absence of a true coelom appears to have changed multiple times during the course of evolution.
Explanation:
A coelom is a fluid-filled body cavity that is completely lined by tissue created from the mesoderm, the middle layer of the primary cells found in an embryo. It is typically found in multicellular organisms, which are living things that have more than one cell.
All of the following are part of the core oligosaccharide side chain in the ER except
A) erythrose.
B) glucose.
C) mannose.
D) N-acetyl glucosamine.
E) All are part of the core oligosaccharide.
The answer you are looking for is A) erythrose.
The correct sequence of sensory processing is
A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.
The correct answer is: B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
1. Stimulus reception-refers to activation of sensory receptors such as photoreceptor (vision), nociceptor (pain), olfactory receptor (smell), gustatiory receptor (taste) etc.
2. Sensory transduction-usually sensory receptor is connected (via synapse) with afferent neuron (sometimes receptor is by itself sensory nerve ending): stimulation of the sensory receptor activates the neuron, which then transports information about the stimulus to the CNS
3. Sensory perception-. specific processing regions of the brain are incolved in the perception of different stimuli. They are responsible for encoding of the type of stimulus, its location the duration, and the intensity.
4. Sensory adaptation-this phenomenon occurs when the sensory receptors become exposed to stimuli for a prolonged period, so their sensitivity to that stimuli is decreased.
Which of the following statements about the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is/are correct?
Liver cells are abundant in SER.
The testes and ovaries are tissue types whose cells are abundant in SER.
The SER is the primary location for synthesis of membrane-bound proteins.
Cholesterol is made in the SER.
The luminal face of the SER is the main site at which membrane lipids are synthesized.
Phospholipids are synthesized from cytosolic water soluble precursor molecules.
Lipases are the enzymes that allow lateral movement of a lipid within a leaflet.
The correct answers are:
• Liver cells are abundant in SER.
This is because liver cells contain enzymes that metabolize various lipid-soluble compounds.
• The testes and ovaries are tissue types whose cells are abundant in SER.
This is because testes and ovaries produce steroid hormones (cholesterol is the precursor for their synthesis).
• Cholesterol is made in the SER.
ER is the organelle at which all membrane lipids are synthesized.
• Phospholipids are synthesized from cytosolic water soluble precursor molecules.
Phospholipids are the main lipids that are the main structural components of the cell membrane. They are synthesized on the cytosolic side of the ER membrane, from water-soluble cytosolic precursors.
1) Radiation from the Earth's surface is _____.
ultraviolet
short-wave
long-wave
X-ray
2) X-rays _____.
have very long wavelengths
are blocked by the ionosphere
are less dangerous than ultraviolet rays
are not emitted by the sun
Answer:
1) Radiation from the Earth's surface is _____.
ultraviolet
short-wave
long-wave
X-ray
2) X-rays _____.
have very long wavelengths
are blocked by the ionosphere
are less dangerous than ultraviolet rays
are not emitted by the sun
Explanation:
Ultraviolet rays: They are invisible rays that are part of the energy that comes from the sun. The ultraviolet radiation that reaches the surface of the Earth is composed of two types of rays called UVA and UVB.
The answer is: Ultraviolet.
The energy of X-rays in general lies between ultraviolet radiation and naturally occurring gamma rays.
The answer is: They are less dangerous than ultraviolet rays.
Answer:
1) I don't know 2) Are blocked by the ionosphere
Explanation:
X-rays are more dangerous than ultraviolet rays. The amount of damage to the body is determined by the amount of exposure. Bone marrow, se(beep) organs, digestive system, and blood vessels are some of the body parts affected most by radiation. People who work with radiation might develop cancer. Very powerful forms of radiation or overexposure can ultimately cause death. The ionosphere absorbs all but a small amount of gamma radiation and X-ray radiation.
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Hypothesis
Select an option for each scenario:
If the subject without diabetes eats a high-carb food such as the candy bar or orange smoothie, then the blood glucose levels will (increase/decrease/stay the same) after a three-hour digestion period.
If the subject without diabetes eats a low-carb food such as the cheese or peanuts, then the blood glucose levels will (increase/decrease/stay the same) after a three-hour digestion period.
If the subject with type 1 diabetes eats a high-carb food such as the candy bar or orange smoothie, then the blood glucose levels will (increase/decrease/stay the same) after a three-hour digestion period.
If the subject with type 1 diabetes eats a low-carb food such as the cheese or peanuts, then the blood glucose levels will (increase/decrease/stay the same) after a three-hour digestion period.
1. The right answer is stay the same.
In a healthy subject, a diet rich in sugar (such as starch and fast sugars) increases blood sugar in the first two hours after ingestion and then stabilizes after the third hour with the action of the patient. insulin which has a hypoglycemic action. But over time the pancreas (the organ that secretes insulin) will get tired over time if these foods are eaten excessively.
2. The right answer is stay the same.
In a healthy person, a diet of low-sugar foods (such as fiber) does not increase blood glucose (or very little) and helps maintain normal blood glucose levels. These foods are good for the health because they preserve the pancreas as long as there is not much solicitude by the presence of a hause of glucose in the blood.
3. The right answer is increase.
In a type 1 diabetic patient, the pancreas does not secrete insulin appropriately, and this is due to self-destruction of the organ by the immune system (autoimmune disease). This implies that during the ingestion of foods rich in sugars, the blood sugar will be hard to regain its normal level, that is why it remains elevated after three hours after ingestion.
4. The right answer is stay the same.
Foods low in carbohydrates are very good for the health and is recommended in the subjects diabetic (type 1 and 2) and even for the healthy subjects to avoid the appearance of the diabetes afterwards. These foods help diabetics to have controlled blood glucose levels when their degradation does not give glucose.
If a person without diabetes eats a high-carb food, their blood glucose levels will increase, while low-carb foods will keep their glucose levels the same. For a person with type 1 diabetes, high-carb foods will also increase their glucose levels, while low-carb foods will keep them the same.
Explanation:The blood glucose levels will increase after a three-hour digestion period if the subject without diabetes eats a high-carb food such as a candy bar or orange smoothie. This is because high-carb foods contain a large amount of carbohydrates, which are broken down into glucose during digestion. Without diabetes, the body can produce enough insulin to regulate the increased glucose levels.
On the other hand, if the subject without diabetes eats a low-carb food such as cheese or peanuts, the blood glucose levels will stay the same after a three-hour digestion period. Low-carb foods contain minimal carbohydrates, so there is not a significant increase in glucose levels.
For the subject with type 1 diabetes, if they eat a high-carb food such as a candy bar or orange smoothie, the blood glucose levels will increase after a three-hour digestion period. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not produce enough insulin to regulate glucose effectively.
Lastly, if the subject with type 1 diabetes eats a low-carb food such as cheese or peanuts, the blood glucose levels will stay the same after a three-hour digestion period. Low-carb foods do not cause a significant increase in glucose levels and do not require much insulin for regulation.
How do vaccines prevent disease?
Answer:
Vaccines introduce an attenuated form of the virus or bacteria into the body.
Explanation:
Vaccines introduce an attenuated form of the virus or bacteria into the body, meaning the virulence of the virus or bacteria has been negated. Introduction of this attenuated form enables the immune cells to easily eliminate the pathogen even without getting diseased and later have memory (in memory B and T cells) so that in case of a real infection, it is easily eradicated.
What is the founder effect?
Sampling error that occurs during the establishment of a new population by a small number of migrants
Natural selection that acts on the founders of a new population in their new, different environment
The frequencies of alleles in a population changing slowly over generations due to chance events
A period of rapid population growth that immediately follows some population bottlenecks
The answer is B, Natural selection that acts in the founders of a new population in their new, different environment.
The best option which describes founder effect is Natural selection that acts on the founders of a new population in their new, different environment.
What is founder effect?In terms of genetics, the term "founder effect" describes the decrease in genomic variability that happens when a small group of people separates from a larger population.
The ensuing new subpopulation will eventually resemble the original tiny, isolated group in terms of genotypes and physical features, which may differ greatly from the original bigger population.
A founder effect may also account for why some genetic disorders are more prevalent in some subsets of the population. A founder effect may occasionally contribute to the development of new species.
Therefore, The best option which describes founder effect is Natural selection that acts on the founders of a new population in their new, different environment.
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How does Earth’s tilt affect climate?
The larger the tilt, the smaller the temperature difference is between summer and winter.
The smaller the tilt, the smaller the temperature difference is between summer and winter.
The larger the tilt, the warmer the summer.
The smaller the tilt, the warmer the summer.
bc the more the earth tilts the farther away that part of the earth gets from the sun so therefor its not goin to be as hot over there
Earth's tilt affects climate by influencing the seasonal temperature. A larger tilt leads to warmer summers and colder winters due to more extreme variations in sunlight received, while a smaller tilt results in less drastic temperature differences between seasons.
The tilt of Earth's axis affects climate by contributing to the seasonal differences in temperature and climate patterns. A larger tilt means that the hemisphere tilting towards the Sun will experience more direct sunlight during summer, leading to warmer summers and colder winters as more energy is absorbed. Conversely, when the hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun during winter, it receives less direct sunlight, resulting in colder temperatures. A smaller tilt, on the other hand, would result in smaller temperature differences between summer and winter because the variation in sunlight received would be less extreme.
In summary, the correct statements regarding Earth's tilt and its effect on climate are:
The larger the tilt, the warmer the summer.
The smaller the tilt, the smaller the temperature difference is between summer and winter.
Groundwater supplies can be easily contaminated by surface mining of coal. Identify how surface mining might adversely affect groundwater conditions.
A) increased runoff of poor quality water to nearby streams
B) recharge of poor quality water to shallow groundwater aquifers
C) technologies used to control water flow prevents contamination
D) increased runoff of poor quality water to nearby streams and recharge of poor quality water to shallow groundwater aquifers
hint: think about the term watershed
Answer:
its D actually
Explanation:
Direct observation is the simplest and most effective method to determine population size. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
False. Direct observation is NOT the simplest and most effective method to determine population size.
Carbon is a very important part of our Earth. In fact, carbon makes life on Earth possible and exists in many different forms. Mauna Loa, Hawaii, is the site for the oldest continuous carbon dioxide (CO2) measurement station in the world. Looking at the data collected, what can you infer is the main reason for the increase in carbon dioxide?
A) Deforestation
B) Rising sea levels
C) Increased volcanic activity
D) More fossil fuels are being burned
Answer: D
Explanation:
As graph shows the most amount of carbon dioxide released from the burning of petroleum, coal and natural gas. Natural gas and coal are the fossil fuels that release carbon dioxide on burning. Petroleum is also considered as fossil fuels as it contains large amount of carbon. So the answer is the graph conclude most of the carbon emission is done due to burning of fossil fuel.
A routine scan of an elderly man reveals partial occlusion of the right internal carotid artery, yet blood supply to his cerebrum is unimpaired. what are two possible causes of the occlusion? what anastomosis is maintaining blood supply to the brain and by what (probable) route(s)?
The partial occlusion of the right internal carotid artery might be caused by arteriosclerosis or a thrombus, while the anastomosis within the circle of Willis, particularly the anterior communicating artery, maintains blood supply to the brain.
Two possible causes of partial occlusion of the right internal carotid artery in an elderly man can be attributed to arteriosclerosis (thickening or hardening of the artery walls) or the formation of a thrombus (blood clot). Despite the occlusion, the blood supply to the cerebrum remains unimpaired, likely due to the anastomosis within the circle of Willis, which includes the anterior communicating artery and other collateral pathways. The circle of Willis is a ring of interconnected arteries located at the base of the brain that ensures continual blood supply even if one part is compromised. The routes by which blood is still able to reach the brain despite the partial occlusion could be through the opposite internal carotid artery, via the anterior communicating artery, or through the vertebral arteries that supply blood to the posterior part of the brain and contribute to the circle of Willis.
The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as
The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as catabolism.
Catabolism together with anabolism is part of the metabolism-set of all chemical reactions within an organism. Purposes of metabolic processes are to convert food energy into energy that is required for cellular processes, to synthesize the building blocks for proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and some carbohydrates (macromolecules) and to eliminate nitrogenous wastes.
Catabolic processes (breaking down of macromolecules) are necessary for energy release (usually in the form of ATP) which is then used in anabolism-synthesis of compounds that cell needs.
Catabolism is the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones, releasing energy and involving reactions such as the breakdown of ATP. This is essential for metabolism and is exemplified in the digestion of food where complex molecules are turned into simpler monomers.
Explanation:The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as catabolism. Catabolic reactions are crucial for the body's metabolism. During these reactions, complex molecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins from ingested food are broken down into their simpler components. Catabolism not only aids in digesting food but also includes the breakdown of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is vital for releasing the energy necessary for various metabolic activities in all the body's cells.
An example of a catabolic process is digestion, where food molecules undergo hydrolysis reactions to become individual monomer units suitable for absorption and use by the body. This is oxidative in nature and leads to energy release. However, not all this energy is captured; some is conserved in the form of ATP, which cells can then use for energy-consuming activities.
Why malarial concepts called hypothesis?
When Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran discovered that malaria was caused by a protozoan parasite in 1880, the miasma theory began to subside. ... In the early 1890s Manson himself began to formulate the complete hypothesis, which he eventually called the mosquito-malaria theory.
Since dogs always salivate at the sight of food, salivation in this case would be called a(n) ___________.
Answer:
Since dogs always salivate at the sight of food, salivation in this case would be called an unconditioned response.
Explanation:
An unconditioned response is a natural or unlearned response that occurs automatically in reaction to an unconditioned stimulus. An unconditioned response does not require learning and it occurs without behavioral modification. From the given question; dogs always salivate at the sight of food. In this case, the sight of food is the unconditioned stimulus. Dogs respond to this stimulus by salivating and it occurs naturally.
A dog salivating at the sight of food is an 'Unconditioned Response'. It is a natural biological reflex not requiring previous learning. Through classical conditioning experiments, Pavlov could elicit this same salivation response (termed 'Conditioned Response') to unrelated stimuli.
Explanation:Based on the information you've provided, the salivation a dog experiences at the sight of food would be termed an Unconditioned Response (UCR).
The renown experiments conducted by Ivan Pavlov used dogs and their salivatory responses to explore the concept of classical conditioning. Essentially, an Unconditioned Response is a biological reflex that naturally occurs without previous learning; in this case, it's the dog salivating at the sight of food.
Pavlov was able to elicit a salivation response - termed the Conditioned Response (CR) - to unrelated stimuli, like the sound of a bell, according to his experiments. This was achieved by consistently pairing the unrelated stimulus (Conditioned Stimulus or CS, e.g., the bell) with the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS, e.g., food)
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Visually analyze the wells colored with btb, and remember that acids are organized by columns and bases are organized by rows. what specific acids or bases are weak or strong acids or bases? explain why.
b)What is the value of using pH paper as an indicator?(1)It’s color coded and has a key, so it’s visually easy to see.
To visually analyze the wells colored with BTB (Bromothymol Blue) and determine the strength of acids and bases, it is required to observe the color changes exhibited by the indicator in different wells.
If a column of wells exhibits a bright yellow color, it indicates the presence of a strong acid. Strong acids completely dissociate in water, releasing a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H+), which turns the BTB indicator yellow.
If a column of wells shows a lighter shade of yellow or a transition from yellow to green, it indicates the presence of a weak acid. Weak acids partially dissociate in water, resulting in a lower concentration of hydrogen ions compared to strong acids.
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What causes asthma?
A. Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics infect the body.
B. Particular antigens trigger muscle contractions that make it difficult to breathe.
C. Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells attack cells in the tissues of the lungs.
D. Mosquito-borne pathogens enter the bloodstream.
Particular antigens trigger muscle contractions that make it difficult to breathe causes Asthma .
The correct option is B .
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that is caused by inflammation and narrowing of the airways in the lungs. It is triggered by certain antigens, such as allergens or irritants, which lead to muscle contractions around the airways (bronchoconstriction) and increased production of mucus.
These factors result in difficulty breathing and characteristic symptoms of asthma, such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics infect the body: Asthma is not caused by bacterial infections, and it is not related to antibiotic resistance.
Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells attack cells in the tissues of the lungs: This statement describes an autoimmune response, which is not a cause of asthma.
Hence , B is the correct option
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about 43% of blood consists of red blood cells.
true or false
i think it would be true but not 100% sure
I believe it is somewhere between 40-45% so the answer should be true
Maxwell shoots a rubber band at his friend Jimmy. Which type of energy is converted into kinetic energy?
Elastic potential energy is converted to kinetic energy