According to Max Weber, what factor or factors are responsible for social stratification?
A. caste, prestige, and power
B. class, prestige, and power
C. only a person’s prestige
D. only a person’s economic position
According to Max Weber, what factor or factors are responsible for social stratification?
B. class, prestige, and power
~Hope this answers your question!~
Max Weber cited class, prestige, and power as the key factors responsible for social stratification, which are interconnected yet distinct elements influencing an individual's social standing. The correct option is: B. class, prestige, and power.
According to Max Weber, the factors responsible for social stratification are class, prestige, and power. Weber's comprehensive theory of social stratification encompassed not only economic positioning but also the dimensions of status and the ability to influence others.
Weber acknowledged that while wealth, power, and prestige frequently go hand-in-hand, they do not always overlap and must be considered as separate yet interconnected factors contributing to an individual's social standing.
The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen so it will most likely be arrested in
a. Telophase
b. Prophase
c. Pro metaphase
d. Metaphase
Answer:
D. Metaphase. It is the third of the five phases of biological cell division, or more specifically, the division of what is inside that cell's nucleus.
Explanation:
The M-phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle, involving a major reorganization of virtually all cell components.
The elongated part of a neuron that is normally covered by a myelin sheath is known as the _[blank]_.
dendrite
synapse
node of Ranvier
axon
The myelin sheath insulates the axon
Step 12: Determine the Sizes of the Flocks in the Third Generation Flock X Flock Y Flock Z Total Pieces of Food Eaten 32 180 88 Food Percentage* 41 % % % Simulated Number of Birds in Flock for 3rd Generation** 12 * Divide each flock's total pieces of food by 300, the total number of pieces of food eaten. ** Multiply the food percentage for each flock by the total number of birds (30).
Final answer:
The question pertains to mathematically determining the sizes of bird flocks based on their food consumption, where the food percentages and simulated number of birds in the next generation are calculated.
Flock Z: 29.33% x 30 = 8.799 birds, approximately 9 birds.
Explanation:
The question involves calculation of flock sizes and percentages related to their food consumption. The total pieces of food eaten were given, and the student was asked to find the food percentage for each flock, and then calculate the simulated number of birds in the third generation.
For Flock X, with 32 pieces of food eaten, the food percentage is calculated by 32 / 300 = 0.1067, which is 10.67%. For Flock Y, with 180 pieces of food eaten, the food percentage is 180 / 300 = 0.6, which is 60%. For Flock Z, with 88 pieces of food eaten, the percentage is 88 / 300 = 0.2933, which is 29.33%.
To find the simulated number of birds in the third generation, you multiply the food percentage by the total number of birds. Hence, for Flock X: 10.67% x 30 = 3.201 birds, approximately 3 birds. For Flock Y: 60% x 30 = 18 birds. For Flock Z: 29.33% x 30 = 8.799 birds, approximately 9 birds.
By calculating the food percentage eaten by each flock and multiplying it by the total number of birds, we find the estimated population size for the third generation.
Explanation:To determine the food percentage for each flock, divide the total pieces of food eaten by the flock by 300, which is the total number of pieces of food eaten by all flocks. Then, to simulate the number of birds in the third generation for each flock, multiply the food percentage by 30, the total number of birds.
For example, Flock X ate 32 pieces of food. So the food percentage for Flock X is: (32/300) * 100 = 10.67%. Next, we simulate the number of birds in the third generation for Flock X: 10.67% of 30 birds = 3.20, which we would round to a whole number depending on the context.
Repeat this process for flacks Y and Z to get the simulated number of birds for those flocks in the third generation.
What would be the result of a mutation that deactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an escherichia coli cell?
A) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator
B) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator
C) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alternation of its structure
D) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator
The correct answer is: B) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator
A regulatory gene is gene that encodes for a protein, such as a repressor (or activators) that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
The regulatory gene of a repressible operon encodes for the repressor that inhibits gene transcription. So, when that repressor isn’t active, transcription occurs continuously.
A mutation that deactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an Escherichia coli cell would result in continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
Explanation:If the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an Escherichia coli cell is deactivated due to a mutation, the result would be continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. In a repressible operon, the regulatory gene codes for a repressor protein that binds to the operator region, blocking transcription of the structural gene. However, when the regulatory gene is deactivated, the repressor protein is not produced, and the structural gene is continuously transcribed.
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In plants, what nucleotide would you expect to immediately follow a methylated cytosine?
Which of the following choices best describes dopamine?
A substance that is naturally found in the brain.
An illegal drug that can cause great damage.
A receptor molecule that is found on neurons.
A protein that stimulates neurons to grow.
i think the answer is
a substance that is naturally found in the brain
Which of the following structures in females is analogous in function to the vas deferens in males?
A. urethra
B. vagina
C. cervix
D. oviduct
E. uterus
The answer is B) oviduct
Final answer:
The female structure analogous to the male's vas deferens is the oviduct or Fallopian tube, which transports the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. Fertilization typically occurs in the Fallopian tube.
Explanation:
The structure in females that is analogous in function to the vas deferens in males is the oviduct, also known as the Fallopian tube. The vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra in preparation for ejaculation. Similarly, the oviduct is the pathway by which an ovum, or egg, travels from the ovary to the uterus. If fertilization is to take place, it typically happens within the oviduct.
Additionally, it is worth noting that fertilization usually occurs in the Fallopian tube, not in the ovary, uterus, or vagina. The urethra in males is part of both the urinary and reproductive systems, allowing the passage of urine and semen, but in females, the urethra is involved solely with the urinary system.
The lowest temperature possible in nature is
the lowest possible temperature in nature is absolute zero, which defines 0 degrees Kelvin (-273.15 degrees C. or -459.67 degrees F.) If by 'nature' you mean ANYWHERE outside a laboratory, intergalactic space would probably offer the lowest temperatures in the known Universe.
hope this helps :)
The lowest temperature possible in nature is absolute zero. Although it cannot be reached in practice, it is assigned the value of zero on the Kelvin scale.
Explanation:This temperature is theoretically the lowest possible temperature and is assigned the value of zero on the Kelvin scale. However, in practice, absolute zero cannot be reached, but the lowest temperatures ever recorded in laboratory experiments were 4.5 × 10-10 K and 1.0 × 10-100 K.
Hence the answer is zero.
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A radioactively labeled protein is made by cells and followed through the various organelles in the secretory pathway. After six hours, all of the radioactivity is still primarily in the Golgi apparatus. This suggests that the:
A) protein was not translated by the ribosomes.
B) protein does not possess a signal peptide for localization within the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C) protein possesses a signal for localization within the Golgi apparatus.
D) all of the above
Answer:
C) protein possesses a signal for localization within the Golgi apparatus.
Explanation:
Protein targeting or sorting is a process by which synthesized proteins are transported to their appropriate localizations in the cell or outside it. Proteins can be targeted to the inner space of an organelle (such as Golgi apparatus or endoplasmic reticulum) or its membrane, plasma membrane, or to exterior of the cell via secretion.
Usually, protein contains signal sequence on the N terminus that is involved in destination targeting.
Plants have cell walls. Fungi have cell walls. And yet, evolutionary biologists do not believe that cell walls are a shared derived character for these two groups. Why is this similarity not considered a shared evolutionary trait?
B.) The cell wall of plants & fungi, while both carbohydrates, are chemically distinct.
Answer:
Due to different chemical composition of plant and fungal cell wall, presence of cell wall is not considered as being the shared feature between these two groups.
Explanation:
Both plants and fungi have cell wall. The principle component of plant cell wall is cellulose while the fungal cell wall is mainly made up of chitin. If the presence of cell wall was a shared feature, both plants and fungi should have similar chemical composition of cell wall. Hence, it is not taken as shared character for these two groups of organisms.
Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of ____. glycogen from glucagon. fat from excess carbohydrate intake. lactose from a source of sucrose. glucose from amino acids. amino acids from glucose
glucose from amino acids.
Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of glucose from amino acids.
Explanation;Gluconeogenesis describes the synthesis of glucose or glycogen from substances which are not carbohydrates.When carbohydrate substrates are not sufficiently available as in starvation or when they are of great demand as in intense physical exertion, gluconeogenesis generates glucose from substances other than carbohydrates, which are stored in the body. The substrates of gluconeogenesis includes lactate, glucogenic amino acids such as alenine and glutamine, glycerol, fatty acid, etc.Answer: glucose from amino acids.
Explanation:
It is a process that occurs only in the liver, where the body synthesizes glucose from non-glycolytic molecules, for use mainly by the glycosidic organs brain, and myocardium. This process occurs when there is a need for energy and the lack of intracellular glucose. Occurs when the body is in a state of prolonged hunger or cell starvation as in pathology diabetes.
Irreversible reactions of the Gluconeogenesis pathway and the glycolytic pathway are located in the same positions. This serves as a mechanism by which the Gluconeogenesis only occurs when necessary and when it is not inhibited by the glycolytic pathway. The glycolytic pathway is negatively controlled in those points at the time the Gluconeogenesis is occurring. If Gluconeogenesis occurred at the same time as the glycolytic path, both routes would be canceled.
When the hormone insulin is released into the bloodstream, what form of cell-to-cell signaling is being used?
a.endocrine
b.paracrine
c.neuronal
d.contact-dependent?
Endocrine. Because insulin is a hormone that are produced in the endocrine gland such as pancreatic gland
What risk factors did albert present with which would support the symptoms observed?
Albert has different symptoms, such as hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, tobacco use, and family history, and these are the reasons behind all his suffering, such as stroke, etc.
What are the negative consequences of hypercholesterolemia?Hypercholesterolemia indicates that the high amount of cholesterol present in the blood leads to many types of serious health conditions, such as the deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessel as a result of which the vessel becomes blocked, which prevents the proper blood flow and results in a variety of heart-related diseases such as stroke, heart attack, etc.
Hence, Albert has different symptoms, such as hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, tobacco use, and family history, and these are the reasons behind all his suffering, such as stroke, etc.
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The question is incomplete, here is the complete question
Albert, a seventy-two year old African-American man, is brought into the emergency room by his daughter. Approximately 45 minutes before arriving, Albert dropped his book when his right arm and hand "fell asleep". When he tried to rise, he noticed his right leg was weak and he needed to hold onto the couch to stand up. He had a difficult time talking because the right side of his face and mouth were "numb" and his tongue felt "thick".
In obtaining a medical and family history it was noted that Albert has smoked at least 1 pack a day of cigarettes per day for the last 40 years and both of his parents died of strokes when they were in their mid sixties. He has previously been diagnosed with both essential hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. He admits to "skipping" his antihypertensive medication because of the unpleasant side effects it causes. Albert notes that he has been experiencing short (5-10 minutes) incidences of weakness on his right side, but he attributed this to the position he was in, causing his arm or leg to "fall asleep". He has also noticed that he is having mild headaches, but recently, these have been less frequent.
Thrombolytic Stroke
Physical examination indicated that Albert was alert and anxious, but his speech was slurred. He was afebrile, had a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, a regular heart rate of 86 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 190/120 mm Hg. Albert had no irregular heart sounds and presented with slight bilateral edema of the ankles. Examination of the nervous system indicated intact tactile sensory function, decreased strength of the right extremities, a diminished gag reflex, diminished right deep tendon reflexes, and right facial droop. Based on these symptoms the emergency room physician suspected a thrombolytic stroke and immediately ordered a head CT scan and various blood tests. The physician also discussed the relative benefits and risks of various treatments and courses of action with Albert and his daughter. Albert was given aspirin for possible thrombosis and a B-blocking antihypertensive and his condition was monitored closely while awaiting the test results.
Results of the laboratory tests indicated hyperglycemia, hypercholesterolemia, normal blood clotting times and platelet numbers. In addition, the head CT was normal. Despite the treatments initiated, Albert's condition continued to deteriorate. While his blood pressure decreased to 170/84 mm Hg, his heart rate was elevated to 100 beats per minute and became irregular. He continued to demonstrate decreased sensation on his right side, slight dysarthria, and further decreases in strength in both right extremities. Based on these results, treatment with plasminogen activator was initiated and an electrocardiogram (ECG) was conducted. The results of the ECG indicated atrial flutter.
After 5 hours, Albert's condition improved to the point that the hemiparesis and dysarthria were at baseline levels and his blood pressure was stabilized at 156/70 mm Hg. Further treatments were then initiated to stabilize Albert's atrial flutter and hypertension. He was given digoxin, which stabilized the atrial flutter and heart rate at 80 beats per minute and an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor was prescribed for the hypertension. An echocardiogram indicated bilateral stenosis of the carotid arteries. Antithrombolytic therapy (325 mg aspirin/day) was also prescribed. Albert was encouraged to stop smoking and to modify his diet and was discharged.
What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump in the nervous system?
Stimulated by the action of the ions on its receptors, the pump transports them in opposite directions against their concentration gradients. ... The sodium-potassium pump carries out a form of active transport—that is, its pumping of ions against their gradients requires the addition of energy from an outside source.
True of false absolute magnitude takes distance into account when indicating the surface temperature of a star
This is false, it takes distance into account for brightness
Consider the following sentence: "The dog did not eat." Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a frameshift mutation?The did not eat.The did dog not eat.The dod idn ote at.The dog did dog did not eat.
The answer is D. . . . . . . . . .
The sentence 'The dod idn ote at' most resembles a frameshift mutation. A frameshift mutation happens when the reading frame of a gene is shifted, resulting in a completely different translation, similar to the shift and change in meaning in this sentence.
Explanation:The variation most like a frameshift mutation is "The dod idn ote at." In biology, a frameshift mutation is a type of mutation involving the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in a DNA sequence that is not divisible by three. Frameshift mutations result in a completely different translation from the original because the reading frame of the gene is moved. This change is similar to what happens in the given sentence, where every word has had a letter moved, shifting the entire sentence and changing the meaning.
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Which of these structures is found in the stomach but nowhere else in the alimentary canal?a. a circular muscle layerb. mucus-forming cellsc. a lining of columnar epotheliumd. an onblique muscle layer
Answer:
d. an onblique muscle layer
Explanation:
The alimentary canal has four main layers:
Mucosa (innermost layer which surrounds the lumen), submucosa (connective tissue with blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves), muscular layer, serosa ( outermost layer of connective tissue).
Muscular layer is subdivided into:
• the inner- arranged in circular rings, prevents food from travelling backward
• outer layer- arranged longitudinally, shortens the tract.
The stomach has an extra layer called inner oblique muscular layer (churning function).
if a dna molecule is made up of 20% thymine what percent of it would be adenine
20% beacuse adinine always pair with thymine therefore the percentage of adinine and thymine is 20+20 = 40% , thus the remaining 60% is of guanine and cytosine
You find what you believe is a new species of animal. Which of the following characteristics would enable you to argue that it is more closely related to a flatworm than it is to a roundworm?
It has a cuticle that it sheds in order to grow.
Its larvae have cilia that they use for feeding and locomotion.
It is shaped like a worm.
It has a well-developed coelom.
Answer:
Its larvae have cilia that they use for feeding and locomotion.
Explanation:
Flatworms or platyhelminths are simple organisms with bilateral symmetry. Their body is unsegmented and soft with different shapes. Flatworms don’t have body cavity, have no specialized circulatory and respiratory organs. There are four main groups of them: Turbellaria, which are mostly non-parasitic animals such as planarians, Cestoda, Trematoda and Monogenea (all three of them are parasitic groups).
If the discovered species has larvae that use cilia for feeding and locomotion, it is most likely more closely related to flatworms. Rounded Worms do not possess this characteristic.
Explanation:The characteristic that would enable you to argue that a newly discovered species is more closely related to a flatworm than to a roundworm is if its larvae have cilia that they use for feeding and locomotion. This characteristic is typically found in flatworms, whereas roundworms do not have cilia. Flatworms are also known for their lack of a well-developed coelom, unlike roundworms that do have it. The presence of a cuticle that it sheds in order to grow is another characteristic of roundworms, not flatworms. Lastly, simply having a worm-like shape does not necessarily indicate relation to either flatworms or roundworms, as many various species share similar shapes.
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If crossing over occurs between two chromatids on a single pair of homologous chromosomes, how many gametes will have a recombinant phenotype?
all 4
1 of the 4
2 of the 4
3 of the 4
none of them
If crossing over occurs only between two chromatids, these crossover chromosomes produce the recombinant gametes and the remaining two are similar to the parentals.
The answer is a
If crossing over occurs between two chromatids on a single pair of homologous chromosomes, then the number of gametes which will have a recombinant phenotype will be 2 of the 4. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Crossing over?Crossing over is a cellular process which takes place during the meiotic division when the chromosomes of the same type in the cell are lined up. When two chromosomes, one from the mother side and one from the father side line up, then some part of the parental chromosome can be switched between the two parents. The two chromosomes contain the same genes, but may have different forms of the genes with them.
If crossing over occurs between any two chromatids which are present on a single pair of homologous chromosomes in the cell, then two out of the four resulting gametes will have a recombinant chromosome and two will have the parental chromosome.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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The height of a type of plant is a normal distribution some plants are tall and some are short but most are in between what is most likely true about this trait apex
several different genes control height.
The copying mechanism of DNA is most like
a. using a photographic negative to make a positive image
b. mixing flour, sugar, and water to make bread dough
c. joining together links to make a chain
d. carving a figure out of wood
e. threading beads onto a string
The correct answer is: a. using a photographic negative to make a positive image
A negative image is a total inversion of positive image (normal image). Negatives are normally used to make positive prints.
This can be compared to copying mechanism of DNA-replication of DNA in which one strand of DNA (e.g. 3’-5’ orientation) is used as a template to make new strand with opposite orientation (5’-3’).
The copying mechanism of DNA is most like using a photographic negative to make a positive image.
The correct option is A .
The copying mechanism of DNA is most like using a photographic negative to make a positive image. In DNA replication, the two strands of the double helix separate, and each strand serves as a template to synthesize a new complementary strand. This process results in two identical DNA molecules, similar to how a photographic negative is used to produce a positive image with identical features.
Just like the negative contains information to create the positive image, each DNA strand contains the genetic information necessary to create the complementary strand during replication.
Hence , A is the correct option
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The kingdom, Protista, includes A) most viral agents. B) prokaryotic organisms. C) yeasts and bread molds. Eliminate D) most single-celled eukaryotes.
yeasts and bread molds. The answer is C
What percentage of krebs cycle enzymes are synthesized on membrane-bound ribosomes?
Answer: 0% percentage of krebs cycle enzymes are synthesized on membrane-bound ribosome
At what point in the light-capturing reactions is the electromagnetic energy of light converted into chemical energy? Where does this occur?
The conversion of light energy to chemical energy first occurs when electrons are transferred from excited photopigments to an electron carrier in a photosystem (pigments together with proteins organized into complexes and located in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts).
The light-dependent reactions is one of the two successive phases that occur during photosynthesis (other is light-independent reactions). The light-dependent reactions use sunlight energy (electromagnetic radiation) to make the energy storage molecule ATP and the reduced electron carrier NADPH. In the light-independent reactions (also called Calvin cycle), CO2 is absorbed and fixed in order to build three-carbon sugars (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate) and this process is fueled by, ATP and NADPH from the light reactions.
Primary consumers depend on energy from plants for survival. Higher consumers depend on energy from primary consumers for survival. Which of the following is also true about plants and consumers? A. The species of plants in an ecosystem does not influence the species of consumers that can live there. B. The number and type of plants in an ecosystem determines the number and type of consumers that can live there. C. Plants are not an important part of an ecosystem because all consumers can receive energy from other consumers. D. The number of plants in an ecosystem does not influence the number of consumers that can live there.
The correct answer is - B. The number and type of plants in an ecosystem determines the number and type of consumers that can live there.
The plants are producers. They are the basis of the ecosystems on Earth. By consuming the plants, the consumers are able to survive and thrive, thus the food chain develops further up to the predators that are consuming other consumers.
The number of plants and the type of plants determines what type and how many species of consumers can live somewhere. The more plants there are, the more food for the consumers, thus there will be more consumers. The higher the diversification of the plants, the higher the diversification of the consumers will be too, as every plant is unique and specialization for consuming it is needed, thus the consumers will evolve into new species in accordance to the food source.
Which of the following hormones stimulates pancreatic secretions?
-histamine
-motilin
-gastrin
-secretin
The correct answer is: secretin
Secretin is a peptide hormone (produced in the S cells of the duodenum), that regulates secretions in the stomach, pancreas, and liver. Secretin is secreted in response to acid in the duodenum, so its role is to stimulate duct cells of the pancreas to secrete water and bicarbonate (regulating water homeostasis).
Secretin is the hormone that stimulates pancreatic secretions.
Explanation:The hormone that stimulates pancreatic secretions is secretin. Secretin is produced by the duodenum in response to the presence of acid in the stomach. When secretin is released, it stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate into the small intestine to neutralize the acid. This helps to maintain an optimal pH for digestion in the small intestine.
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Becky's 2-year-old son can't walk because he was born with spina bifida. to reduce the chances that her next baby is born with this birth defect or related disorders, becky should _____.
Not have kids, adopt them, or maybe find a different dad if her carriers the disease. She should follow normal check ups. She should take 400mg of folic acid to help the spin grow better. A multi-vitamin and some vitamin B would reduce it by 70%
What term can be an educated guess about what the answer to the question might be
An educated guess is an hypothesis