The answer would be C.
Cells are the basic building blocks of all living organisms.
c. it is cells! :)
hope it helps
What types of cells does meiosis produce?
Meiosis produces our sex cells or gametes(eggs in females and sperm in males).
Hope this helps have a good day my friend....
they produce gametes
A farmer wants to sell the farm's fruit crop before the fruit have ripened.
Which plant hormones could be used to address this situation?
cytokinins
gibberellins
auxins
ethylene
answer:gibbrrellins as it have a role in other plant processes, such as stem elongation, germination, flowering, and fruit ripening
Which of the following is true of the endocrine system but not the nervous system?
A) directs long term processes such as pregnancy and puberty
B) communicates via chemical signals
C) regulates activities of muscles and glands
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
The answer to this is A.
The correct answer is D) A and B are correct. The endocrine system directs long-term processes such as pregnancy and puberty, and communicates via chemical signals called hormones, which are distinctly different from the nervous system's neurotransmitters.
The endocrine and nervous systems are both crucial for regulating body functions but operate through different mechanisms. The endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream, signaling changes over a prolonged period, ranging from minutes to years. This system is responsible for managing and maintaining body processes such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction. The nervous system, conversely, acts rapidly through electrical impulses, regulating short-term reactions like muscle movements and glandular activities. Both systems tightly integrate to maintain homeostasis and respond to internal and external environmental changes, but it is specifically the hormonal communication and control of long-term body processes that are characteristic of the endocrine system.
A _[blank]_ is an organism's role in a community.
carrying capacity
habitat
niche
biotic factor
➷ It would be 'niche.'
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Which scenario is an example of a negative feedback loop?
A.
When body temperature increases, sweat is produced as a cooling agent to lower body temperature.
B.
In some parts of the world, birth rates are far exceeding death rates, which has led to overpopulation.
C.
Ice reflects sunlight much better than water. A warmer atmosphere is turning ice to water, which is absorbing more of the Sun’s energy.
D.
A warmer atmosphere is leading to warmer oceans. A warm ocean releases more carbon dioxide, which traps more heat in Earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
A. When body temperature increases, sweat is produced as a cooling agent to lower body temperature.
Explanation:
A negative feedback mechanism is one that works by reducing a given stimulus. This mechanism is directly linked to maintaining our body's balance (homeostasis) and hormone secretion.
Sweat acts as a negative feedback mechanism as follows: When the nervous system detects the change in temperature during exercise, for example, it understands this change and stimulates the release of sweat.
As we perspire, sweat gets on the skin and then evaporates, cooling the body.
In other words, this means that by detecting the increase in body temperature, the body caused it to decrease as negative feedback through the production of sweat.
Which of the following is true of secondary endosymbiosis?It is indicated by the presence of a double membrane surrounding the endymbiont.An organism containing one endosymbiont engulfs another organism, and that organism becomes an endosymbiont.It is indicated by the presence of a nucleomorph.An organism containing an endosymbiont is engulfed by another organism and becomes an endosymbiont.It is indicated by the presence of a mixotroph.
The correct answer is: An organism containing an endosymbiont is engulfed by another organism and becomes an endosymbiont.
Primary endosymbiosis - process in which a eukaryotic cell engulfs another living prokaryotic cell
Secondary endosymbiosis –process in which eukaryotic cell engulfs another eukaryote cell that has already undergone primary endosymbiosis.
Secondary endosymbiosis involves an organism with an endosymbiont being engulfed by another organism, leading to complex structures like plastids in chlorarachniophytes, which are surrounded by multiple membranes, including additional ones from the secondary engulfing event.
Explanation:Secondary endosymbiosis occurs when an organism containing an endosymbiont is itself engulfed by another organism, resulting in a coevolutionary relationship. This subsequent endosymbiotic event leads to the presence of additional membranes surrounding the endosymbiont, which includes the engulfing organism's plasma membrane and the original host's phagosomal membrane. A key characteristic of secondary endosymbiosis is the presence of more than two membranes, often three or four, around the plastids - as is the case with chlorarachniophytes, and sometimes a remnant nucleus known as a nucleomorph.
In the case of chlorarachniophytes, a eukaryotic cell engulfed a green alga that had previously engaged in primary endosymbiosis with a cyanobacterium. This subsequent event illustrates secondary endosymbiosis. The plastid within chlorarachniophytes thus has four surrounding membranes, reflecting its complex endosymbiotic history.
Which of the following are thought to be most closely related to humans?
ants
sea stars
earthworms
snails
jellies
Sea Stars, because they are also deuterostomes.
Star fishes are more related to humans than other species given in the option.
Explanation: The star fishes have five arms while humans also have arms but only two which is a dissimilar. The body of the star fish are covered with spike while humans are covered with hair (facial/body) which is a dissimilar. The skeleton of the star fish is covered with outer cover which is similar to humans. The digestive systems of the star fish and human are not very different from each other. The star fish performs digestion with less organs compared to humans. The nervous system, circulatory system, and digestive system different for both species.But from the given options, star sea is mostly related to humans.
Intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm hg less than the pressure in the alveoli. intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm hg less than the pressure in the alveoli.
a. True
b. False
The answer should be B
Yes, intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm Hg less than the pressure in the alveoli. This pressure difference keeps the alveoli expanded, aiding in gas exchange in the lungs.
Explanation:The statement that Intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm Hg less than the pressure in the alveoli is true. Intrapleural pressure is the pressure inside the pleural cavity, which is the thin, fluid-filled space between the two pulmonary pleurae of each lung. The pressure in the intrapleural space is usually less than the pressure in the alveoli during the entire respiratory cycle. This pressure difference is important as it keeps the alveoli expanded, helping in the process of gas exchange in the lungs.
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Why are lethal dominant alleles so much more rare than lethal recessive alleles?
a. The lethality associated with lethal dominant alleles is much more severe than that associated with lethal recessive alleles.
b. The types of mutations that create lethal dominant alleles are much less frequent than those that create lethal recessive alleles.
c. Less is known about lethal dominant disorders, so the rareness of these alleles is an artifact due to a lack of detection.
d. Lethal dominant alleles are harmful whether they are carried in homozygous or heterozygous form, so there is always strong selection against these alleles.
The correct answer is: d. Lethal dominant alleles are harmful whether they are carried in homozygous or heterozygous form, so there is always strong selection against these alleles.
Lethal alleles cause the death (prenatal or after birth, but usually early in development) of the organism that carries them. There are three types of lethal alleles:
• Recessive-both alleles must be defective,
• Dominant-it is sufficient that one allele is lethal to cause the death,
• Conditional depending on the gene or genes involved.
Lethal alleles are usually a result of mutations in genes essential for development of an organism.
explain the difference between mutations in sex cells and those in somatic cells.
germ cell mutations are mutations that occurs in sex cells. They can be passed on to offspring. somatic cell mutation are mutations that occurs in any other cells besides sex cells.
Germline mutations affect offspring, while somatic mutations do not pass on to offspring.
Germline mutations occur in gametes and can be passed to offspring, affecting every cell in the offspring. Somatic mutations occur in other body cells and do not pass on to offspring. Somatic mutations are more common due to the higher number of cell divisions in somatic cells.
Almost all the energy used by living things comes from _____. animals plants the Earth the Sun
The sun is a source of energy for all living things.
Answer:
The sun.
Explanation:
Sun is the ultimate source of energy. All living things on the earth using the energy comes from the sunlight.
Plants using sunlight to fuel the process of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process of transforming of water and carbon dioxide to oxygen and glucose. The amount of energy used to drive the photosynthesis process is stored in the glucose molecules.
Organism feed on plants and breaking down the glucose molecules to release the stored energy. The release energy is utilized by the cells present in the organisms.
Autotrophs also have the ability to make their own food, so they are also using the energy from the sun to make their food.
Clues to the important roles both nature and nurture play in development is seen in infants as they begin to gain the ability to actively perceive the distance from themselves to objects in the environment. This ability is also known as what term?
iThe ability to actively perceive the distance from infants (themselves) to objects is known as cognitive development.
Cognitive development refers to how an infant perceives and thinks In contrast to the emphasis placed on a child's native abilities by intelligence testing. It is the understanding of how children react to their environment, and relating old habits of nurturing or natural experiences that they already know, to new experiences.
The term for the ability of infants to actively perceive the distance to objects is depth perception. It develops along with motor skills and the understanding of object permanence, marking key milestones in cognitive development during the sensorimotor stage. Both nature and nurture play crucial roles in this development.
Explanation:The ability of infants to actively perceive the distance from themselves to objects in the environment is referred to as depth perception. It emerges as an interplay between nature (genes and biology) and nurture (environment and culture). This ability not only facilitates the development of motor skills but is also crucial in cognitive development, such as the understanding of object permanence.
According to Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, object permanence is a key milestone achieved during the sensorimotor stage (from birth to about 2 years old). This is the understanding that even if an object is out of sight, it still exists. The development of object permanence, along with depth perception, enables infants to understand their environment better and interact with it more effectively.
Developmental psychologists have made significant strides in comparing how both nature and nurture influence these capabilities. Their studies reveal a complex relationship where both genetic factors and environmental stimuli contribute to a child's increasing awareness and comprehension of the world around them.
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Explain the relationship between mutations, adaptations, natural selection, and extinction
Mutations and natural selection cause adaptations. Mutations can cause instant adaptations, while natural selection is the process by which adaptations occurs over a series of generations.
Adaptations are changes or processes of changes by which an organism or species becomes better suited for its environment.
A mutation is an alteration of the DNA sequence. Sometimes such alterations code for the same amino acid sequence as the unaltered DNA strand during protein synthesis. In such a circumstance, the mutation is not detectable. However, other mutations alter the genetic code in such a way that a noticeable change in the trait that is associated with that gene is visible. Sometimes such mutations are advantageous and improve the organism's ability to survive in its environment.
Natural selection is the process by which organisms with more advantageous traits (being camouflaged, being covered with the correct outer covering for the temperatures of that environment, stronger/ larger/ or faster to fight off or run from predators, etc.) are more likely to survive in a particular environment. Likewise, organisms less advantageous traits are more likely to die due to the pressures exerted by the environment (such as temperature, predators, illness, etc.). Therefore, the organisms with the advantageous traits that survive are more likely to survive to find a mate and reproduce. Thus, the advantageous traits are passed down to future generations.
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Mutations can cause instant adaptations, while natural selection is the process by which adaptations occurs over a series of generations. Adaptations are changes or processes of changes by which an organism or species becomes better suited for its environment. A mutation is an alteration of the DNA sequence
A man pushes a box with a force of 5 N. He pushes it 10 meters in 5 seconds. How much power does he use?A man pushes a box with a force of 5 N. He pushes it 10 meters in 5 seconds. How much power does he use?
Power=Work/Time
work=ForcexDistance
P=(5x10)/5
P=10W
Final answer:
The power used by a man who pushes a box with a force of 5 N over a distance of 10 meters in 5 seconds is 10 watts.
Explanation:
To calculate the power used by the man pushing the box, we start by calculating the work done. Work is defined as the force applied to an object multiplied by the displacement in the direction of the force. In this case, the man applies a force of 5 N over a distance of 10 meters, which results in 50 J (joules) of work (Work = Force x Distance).
Next, since power is the rate at which work is done, we divide the work by the time it took to complete the work. The man took 5 seconds to push the box 10 meters, so the power is calculated by dividing 50 J by 5 seconds, resulting in 10 W (watts) of power used (Power = Work / Time)
Housekeeping employees of the medical center were recruited for a federally-funded study of blood pressure, blood count levels, infectious disease his
The question pertains to a federally-funded health study involving housekeeping employees at a medical center, examining their blood pressure, blood count levels, and incidence of infectious disease. Such a study could provide valuable insight into these employees' health risks and needs.
The subject of this question is a federally-funded study on the blood pressure, blood count levels, and prevalence of infectious disease among housekeeping employees of a medical center. Given their work environment, these employees may have different health parameters compared to other groups. For instance, they might be at a higher risk for certain infectious diseases. In a study like this, blood pressure and blood count levels could be indicators of overall health status. It's important that such studies are conducted appropriately and ethically, respecting the rights and wellbeing of the participants.
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The question refers to a health study of hospital housekeeping staff involving the analysis of blood pressure, blood count levels, and infectious diseases, giving an overview of the employees' overall health.
Explanation:In the context of this question, housekeeping employees at a medical center were part of a federally-funded study examining key health indicators like blood pressure, blood count levels, and the presence of any infectious diseases. Blood pressure can give insight into an individual's cardiovascular health. Elevated levels might indicate hypertension, a major risk factor for heart disease. Blood count levels can be analyzed to monitor overall health and detect issues like anemia, infection, or other blood diseases. Lastly, testing for infectious diseases helps pinpoint risky exposure at the workplace. This overall health assessment can provide valuable insights into the occupational health safety of the employees.
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The ribosome is important for catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds. Which of the following statements is true? (a) The number of rRNA molecules that make up a ribosome greatly exceeds the number of protein molecules found in the ribosome. (b) The large subunit of the ribosome is important for binding to the mRNA. (c) The catalytic site for peptide bond formation is formed primarily from an rRNA. (d) Once the large and small subunits of the ribosome assemble, they will not separate from each other until degraded by the proteasome.
The correct answer is: c) The catalytic site for peptide bond formation is formed primarily from an rRNA
Ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA) together with proteins is the major component of the ribosome. rRNA is essential for protein synthesis in all living organisms. Ribosomes contain two major rRNAs (and abot 50 proteins) that form two ribosomal subunits, the large one and the small one. The large subunit rRNA has a function of ribozyme: catalyzes peptide bond formation.
The true statement about ribosomes is that the catalytic site for peptide bond formation is predominantly formed from an rRNA. Ribosomes are composed of both rRNA and proteins where rRNA has a crucial role in catalyzing peptide bond formation between amino acids.
Explanation:The correct statement regarding ribosomes is option (c) - The catalytic site for peptide bond formation is formed primarily from an rRNA. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) constitutes a significant proportion of the ribosome and plays a critical role in protein synthesis by catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds between two aligned amino acids. This is done at the catalytic site, which is primarily formed by rRNA.
Regarding the other options, (a) is not fully accurate because the number of rRNA molecules does not necessarily greatly exceed the number of protein molecules in a ribosome. (b) While the ribosome's large subunit does play a role in protein translation, it is the small subunit that is primarily responsible for binding the mRNA.
Finally, in reference to option (d), the large and small subunits of a ribosome can and do disassemble and reassemble as needed for protein synthesis. They are not in a permanent state of assembly until degraded by the proteasome.
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Number the events from earliest (1) to most recent (6) to outline the development of the cell theory.
Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called “animalcules.”
Robert Hooke was the first to use the word “cell.”
Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells.
Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells.
Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope.
Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells.
Answer:
Number the events from earliest (1) to most recent (6) to outline the development of the cell theory.
✔ 3
Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called “animalcules.”
✔ 2
Robert Hooke was the first to use the word “cell.”
✔ 4
Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells.
✔ 5
Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells.
✔ 1
Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope.
✔ 6
Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells.
The correct numbering of the events leading to the development of the cell theory from the earliest to the most recent would be as follows:
1 -Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope.2 - Robert Hooke was the first to use the word “cell.”3 - Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called “animalcules"4 - Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells5 - Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells.6 - Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells.Hans and Janssen created the first microscope in 1595.
In 1665, the word 'cell' was coined by Robert Hooke when he saw compartment-like structures looking through a primitive microscope.
Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called “animalcules" in 1674.
Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells in 1838
Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells in the year 1839
Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells in 1858.
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Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous? TT Tt tt
Tt heterozygous or hybrid
What information can not be obtained from the sequence of a gene? view available hint(s) what information can not be obtained from the sequence of a gene? whether the gene is methylated. relationship between two species. effects of mutation on gene function. amino acid sequence of the protein?
The right answer is A.
The methylation profile of DNA is not obtained when DNA sequencing is performed.
Methylation is a process that can occur in DNA especially at the cytosine level. And this has a very important role in gene expression as it is part of the epigenetic expression.
Gene methylation can induce or repress gene expression depending on the localization of methylated bases.
Further explanation
Gene expression is a series of processes using information from a gene for the synthesis of functional gene products. These products can be proteins, as well as non-protein coding genes such as RNA transfer (tRNA) or small nucleus RNA genes (snRNA), both of which are functional RNA products.
The process of gene expression is used by all living things including eukaryotes, prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea), and is used by viruses - to produce macromolecular machines for their survival.
Several stages in the process of gene expression are transcription, splicing or RNA splicing, translation, and post-translational modification of proteins. Gene regulation provides cell control over structure and function, and is the basis for cell differentiation, morphogenesis, and the versatility and adaptability of each organism. Gene regulation can also function as a substrate for evolutionary change, because the control of the time, location, and amount of gene expression can have a large effect on the function (action) of genes in cells or in multicellular organisms.
In genetics, gene expression is the most fundamental level at which genotypes give rise to phenotypes, that is, observable traits. The genetic code stored in DNA is "interpreted" by gene expression, and the properties of that expression give rise to an organism's phenotype. Such phenotypes are often expressed by protein synthesis that controls the shape of the organism, or which acts as an enzyme that catalyzes the specific metabolic pathways that characterize the organism. Regulation of gene expression is thus essential for the development of an organism.
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Class: high School
Subject: biology
Keywords : gene, RNA, DNA
Each of the following is a condition necessary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT
A. More offspring are born than can survive B. Population size is very largeC. Fitness varied among individualsD. There is heritable variation among members of the population
The four traits for natural selection according to Darwin are, variation, inheritance, high population growth rate, and differential survival and reproduction. Therefore the answer is A
Answer:
is B
Explanation:
Which of these results when hormone secretion is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism?
All hormones are regulated by other hormones.
Hormones determine the metabolic rate of all cells.
Hormone concentrations rise and fall depending on the time of day.
The concentration of a hormone remains within a narrow normal range.
the concentration of a hormone remains within a narrow normal range
In this experiment, how many chromosomes were present when meiosis i started?
46 chromosomes. Hope you do well.
Which type of environmental scientists is likely to study how different species of birds interact?
describe how acidic solutions differ from pure water
A basic solution contains lower concentration of H+ ions than pure water and pH values above 7. Describe how acidic solutions differ from pure water. It is important to cells since one of the ways the body controls pH is through dissolved compounds called buffers.
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Acidic solutions differ from pure water in that they have a higher concentration of hydronium ions and, consequently, a lower concentration of hydroxide ions due to the ionization of the acid. The acidity of a solution is also indicated by its pH, with acidic solutions having a pH less than 7 compared to pure water's neutral pH of 7.
Explanation:An acidic solution mainly differs from pure water in terms of their hydronium and hydroxide ion concentrations. Pure water is regarded as neutral and contains equal concentrations of hydronium and hydroxide ions. However, in an acidic solution, due to the ionization of the acid, there are more hydronium ions and consequently, less hydroxide ions. This suggests that the acidity or alkalinity of a solution is indicated by its pH. For example, pure water, which is neutral, has a pH of 7, while an acidic solution has a pH less than 7. Acids in solution also tend to readily donate hydrogen ions which contributes to the increased concentration of hydronium ions.
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Monica LePointe was murdered at a popular dance club called Disco Inferno. The main suspect in the crime is her cousin Erika Harris. Monica’s body was found by another club dancer, who immediately yelled for a bouncer. The bouncer realized Monica was dead or dying and made a 911 call. A medical team arrived, followed soon by a nearby uniformed police officer/beat officer, who cordoned off the area. Sometime later, a police detective arrived to investigate the crime. In this scenario, which locations are likely places law enforcement might collect evidence from?
Disco Inferno
Monica’s home
Erika’s car
All of the above
All of the above is he answer
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- All of the above.
Explanation:
In the given situation, to solve the mystery of the death of Monica the police detective will collect the evidence.
He will collect the evidence from the site of the murder that is the disco she was present at the time of murder which is Disco inferno.
The detective will also collect the additional evidence from the belongings of the Monica like his home as well as the person who is suspect in the crime- Erika Harris. The detective will search the belongings of the Erika Harris also.
Thus, option- All of the above is the correct answer.
Which layer of the sun is only seen during a total solar eclipse?
A) photosphere
B) corona
C) core
D) convectional zone
Answer:
Corona
Explanation:
I took the test
Identify each example on the diagram as a carbon source or a carbon sink.
Answer: In this order from left to right: carbon sink, carbon sink, carbon source
Explanation: i took the edmentum test
The labels in the image should be placed as follows:
Carbon sources:
Factories ,Power stations, Vehicle emissions, Fossil fuels (coal, natural gas),Respiration.
Carbon sinks:
Plants ,Forests ,Ocean .
The carbon cycle is the process by which carbon is exchanged between the atmosphere, biosphere, geosphere, and hydrosphere.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the main form of carbon in the atmosphere. Plants take in CO2 during photosynthesis and use it to produce food.
Animals consume plants and release CO2 back into the atmosphere through respiration. CO2 can also be released into the atmosphere through the burning of fossil fuels.
The ocean is a major carbon sink, absorbing about a quarter of the CO2 that is released into the atmosphere.
Forests are also important carbon sinks, as they absorb CO2 from the atmosphere and store it in their biomass.
Human activities, such as the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation, are disrupting the carbon cycle.
This is leading to an increase in the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere, which is causing climate change.
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Which statement correctly distinguishes between a closed circulatory system and an open circulatory system?
An open system does not have vessels, but a closed system does.
A closed system does not have vessels, but an open system does.
Blood does not leave the vessels in a closed system.
Blood does not leave the vessels in an open system.
Answer:
An open system does not have vessels, but a closed system does.
Explanation:
A closed circulatory system is the one which has blood vessels like arteries, veins, and capillaries for circulation of blood while an open circulatory system is the one in which there are no blood vessels to carry blood and the blood runs freely in the body cavity known as hemocoel. In open circulatory system the tissues are in direct contact with a blood-like fluid known as hemolymph. Evolutionarily, closed circulatory system is considered more advanced and advantageous as compared to open circulatory system. Advanced animals like mammals have closed circulatory system while lower organisms like arthropods (insects) and some mollusks (snails, clams) have open circulatory system.
A radioactively labeled protein is made by cells and followed through the various organelles in the secretory pathway. After six hours, all of the radioactivity is still primarily in the Golgi apparatus. This suggests that the _____
This suggests that the protein is targeted to Golgi apparatus.
Protein targeting or sorting is a process by which synthesized proteins are transported to their appropriate localizations in the cell or outside it. Proteins can be targeted to the inner space of an organelle (such as Golgi apparatus or endoplasmic reticulum) or its membrane, plasma membrane, or to exterior of the cell via secretion.
Usually, protein contains signal sequence on the N terminus that is involved in destination targeting.
Which of the following statements about the import of protein to the nucleus is correct? Choose all that apply. a. An NLS can be a monopartite or bipartite signal which includes a significant number of basic amino acids. b. GTP is required for an importin to bind to an NLS of a protein destined to be localized to the nucleus. c. Ribosomal proteins must display an NLS to be localized to the nucleus, and an NES to be localized to the nucleolus. d. The recycling of importins back to their original conformation requires GTP hydrolysis in the cytoplasm.
The correct statements are:
• a. An NLS can be a monopartite or bipartite signal which includes a significant number of basic amino acids.
• d. The recycling of importins back to their original conformation requires GTP hydrolysis in the cytoplasm.
The other answers are incorrect because GTP is not required for an importin to bind to an NLS but for the release of importin and an NES or nuclear export signal is the sequence in a protein for export from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm, not to the nucleolus.